Myles's question at Yahoo Answers (Domain and range)

In summary: Since $e^x>0$ for all x, the domain of f is $\mathbf{R}$. Furthermore, the range of f is (0,+∞), as $f'(x)>0$ only for x<0$, and $f'(x)<0$ for x>0$.
  • #1
Fernando Revilla
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Here is the question:

Please show all the steps to how you get the answers. I would like to learn how you got to the final result.

Here is a link to the question:

Find the domain and range of f(x)= (e^x)/(1+2e^x)? - Yahoo! AnswersI have posted a link there to this topic so the OP can find my response.
 
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  • #2
Hello Myles,

For all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ there exist $e^x$ and $e^{2x}$. Besides, $1+e^{2x}>0$ so the quotient exists for all $x\in \mathbb{R}$. as a consequence $$\boxed{\;\mbox{Dom }(f)=\mathbb{R}\;}$$ Clearly $f(x)>0$ in $\mathbb{R}$ and we are going to study the variation of $f$: $$\lim_{x\to +\infty}f(x)=\lim_{x\to +\infty}\frac{e^x}{1+e^{2x}}=\lim_{x\to +\infty}\frac{e^{-x}}{e^{-2x}+1}=\frac{0}{0+1}=0\\\lim_{x\to -\infty}f(x)=\lim_{x\to -\infty}\frac{e^x}{1+e^{2x}}=\frac{0}{1+0}=0$$ This means that $\mbox{range }(f)\subset (0,+\infty)$. Let's find the singular points: $$f'(x)=\ldots=\dfrac{e^x(1-e^{2x})}{(1+e^{2x})^2}=0\Leftrightarrow1-e^{2x}=0\Leftrightarrow x=0$$ If $x<0$, then $f'(x)>0$. If $x>0$, then $f'(x)<0$, so there is an absolute maximum: $f(0)=1/2$. According to the Intermediate Value Theorem for continuous functions, we conclude: $$\boxed{\;\mbox{range} (f)=\left(0,1/2\right]\;}$$
 
  • #3
Fernando Revilla said:
Here is the question:
Here is a link to the question:

Find the domain and range of f(x)= (e^x)/(1+2e^x)? - Yahoo! AnswersI have posted a link there to this topic so the OP can find my response.

Since it's a fraction, the denominator can never be 0. But since \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} e^x > 0 \end{align*}\) for all x, so is \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} 1 + 2e^x \end{align*}\). So the domain is \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} \mathbf{R} \end{align*}\).

As for the range, for starters

\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} e^x > 0 \end{align*}\) and \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} 1 + 2e^x > 0 \end{align*}\), so their quotient is also positive. As for the rest, it might be easier to write this in a more standard form...

\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \begin{align*} y &= \frac{e^x}{1 + 2e^x} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{2e^x}{1 + 2e^x} \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{1 + 2e^x - 1}{1 + 2e^x} \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{1 + 2e^x} \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{2 + 4e^x} \end{align*}\)

Editing...
 

FAQ: Myles's question at Yahoo Answers (Domain and range)

What is the difference between domain and range?

The domain of a function refers to the set of all possible input values, while the range refers to the set of all possible output values.

How do you find the domain and range of a given function?

To find the domain, you need to look at all possible input values and see if there are any restrictions on them. To find the range, you need to determine all possible output values based on the given input values and the function itself.

Can a function have an infinite domain or range?

Yes, a function can have an infinite domain or range if there are no restrictions on the input or output values. For example, the function f(x) = x^2 has an infinite domain and range.

How do you graph the domain and range of a function?

To graph the domain and range of a function, you can plot the input values on the x-axis and the output values on the y-axis. The domain will be the set of all x-values and the range will be the set of all y-values.

Can the domain and range of a function overlap?

Yes, the domain and range of a function can overlap. This means that some input values can correspond to multiple output values and vice versa. This is known as a one-to-many or many-to-one relationship.

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