- #1
Logic1
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The proposition ¬(P→Q) is equivalent to ¬P^Q
Does someone maybe have an idea how you can prove (directly) ¬P^Q from ¬(P→Q) by means of natural deduction? I do not manage it.
Thanks in advance!
Does someone maybe have an idea how you can prove (directly) ¬P^Q from ¬(P→Q) by means of natural deduction? I do not manage it.
Thanks in advance!