- #1
DeusAbscondus
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when I differentiate:
$$ln4x+sin(x)$$
I get:
$$\frac{1}{x}+cos(x)$$
and Wolfgram agrees
But then when i test this by calculating indefinite integral, I get:
$$ln(x)+cos(x)$$
Which leaves me with three questions:
1. what happened to the 4?
2. why isn't it integrating back to (at least) ln(x)+sin(x)?
3. why doesn't wolfram add $+C$ to the end of an indefinite integral,
seemingly defying a principle over which I've had my knuckles wrapped severely (and liked it) ?
Thanks,
Deus Abscondus or:
"God has absconded from the scene ... again!"
$$ln4x+sin(x)$$
I get:
$$\frac{1}{x}+cos(x)$$
and Wolfgram agrees
But then when i test this by calculating indefinite integral, I get:
$$ln(x)+cos(x)$$
Which leaves me with three questions:
1. what happened to the 4?
2. why isn't it integrating back to (at least) ln(x)+sin(x)?
3. why doesn't wolfram add $+C$ to the end of an indefinite integral,
seemingly defying a principle over which I've had my knuckles wrapped severely (and liked it) ?
Thanks,
Deus Abscondus or:
"God has absconded from the scene ... again!"
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