- #1
tmt1
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- 0
If I have $\ln\left({a}\right) - \ln\left({b}\right)$ that would equal $\ln\left({\frac{a}{b}}\right)$ or $-(\ln\left({b}\right) - \ln\left({a}\right))$ which is also $- \ln\left({\frac{b}{a}}\right)$. So does this mean $\ln\left({\frac{a}{b}}\right)$ equals $- \ln\left({\frac{b}{a}}\right)$?