Navier-Stokes solutions: Beltrami flow

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casparov
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TL;DR Summary
Question on viscosity with Beltrami flow
There are some known solutions for 3D Navier-Stokes such as Beltrami flow.
In the literature these Beltrami flow solutions are said to not take into account viscosity, however when I read the information on Beltrami flow, they do seem to involve (kinematic) viscosity:

From incompressible vorticity eq,

{\displaystyle {\frac {\partial {\boldsymbol {\omega }}}{\partial t}}+(\mathbf {v} \cdot \nabla ){\boldsymbol {\omega }}-({\boldsymbol {\omega }}\cdot \nabla )\mathbf {v} =\nu \nabla ^{2}{\boldsymbol {\omega }}+\nabla \times f,}


and because w and v are parallel,
{\displaystyle (\mathbf {v} \cdot \nabla ){\boldsymbol {\omega }}=({\boldsymbol {\omega }}\cdot \nabla )\mathbf {v} =0}
, yields a linear DE

{\displaystyle {\frac {\partial {\boldsymbol {\omega }}}{\partial t}}=\nu \nabla ^{2}{\boldsymbol {\omega }}+\nabla \times f.}

Which is satisfied with Beltrami flow. With nu the kinematic viscosity and f an external force.

Is the problem the linearization ?
Also, might the necessary viscosity also not be modelled through a suitable "external" force expression?

Can someone explain why Beltrami flows are considered inviscid solutions ?
 

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