- #1
sonofagun
- 16
- 0
Let D⊆ℝ be an interval of nonzero length from which at most finitely man points x1,...,xn have been removed and let f: D→ℝ be a function. Then every discontinuity x∈D∪{x1,...,xn} of f is one of four types (removable, jump, infinite or discontinuity by oscillation).
Proof: Let x∈D or let x be one of the finitely many elements that were removed and assume that f is not continuous at x. Let the discontinuity at x be neither a removable discontinuity, nor a jump discontinuity, nor an infinite discontinuity. We will prove that it must be a discontinuity by oscillation. If limz→x-f(x) and limz→x+f(x) both existed, then they would either be equal and the discontinuity would be removable, or not equal and the discontinuity would be a jump discontinuity. Hence at least one of the one-sided limits does not exist at x. If x is the supremum or infimum of D, then f is defined at x and one of the two one-sided limits does not exist by default.
The last sentence is where I need clarification. I don't understand how x being the sup or inf of D implies that f is defined at x. Can someone explain that? The proof goes on:
In this case, the respective other one-sided limit also must not exist, because otherwise there would be a removable discontinuity at x. By symmetry, we can assume without loss of generality that limz→x-f(x) does not exist and f is defined on some interval [x-δ, x).
I'm stumped here as well. Can some one explain in detail why these sentences are true?
Proof: Let x∈D or let x be one of the finitely many elements that were removed and assume that f is not continuous at x. Let the discontinuity at x be neither a removable discontinuity, nor a jump discontinuity, nor an infinite discontinuity. We will prove that it must be a discontinuity by oscillation. If limz→x-f(x) and limz→x+f(x) both existed, then they would either be equal and the discontinuity would be removable, or not equal and the discontinuity would be a jump discontinuity. Hence at least one of the one-sided limits does not exist at x. If x is the supremum or infimum of D, then f is defined at x and one of the two one-sided limits does not exist by default.
The last sentence is where I need clarification. I don't understand how x being the sup or inf of D implies that f is defined at x. Can someone explain that? The proof goes on:
In this case, the respective other one-sided limit also must not exist, because otherwise there would be a removable discontinuity at x. By symmetry, we can assume without loss of generality that limz→x-f(x) does not exist and f is defined on some interval [x-δ, x).
I'm stumped here as well. Can some one explain in detail why these sentences are true?