- #1
omin
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Newton's 3 Law: Whenever one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts an equal and opposite force on the first.
Since the magnitude of force applied is said to be exactly the magnitude returned and the direction is said to be exactly opposite, shouldn't no truly equal and opposite collision change the velocity of the second object?
It seems to me that the slightest change of velocity of the second object implies that equal and opposite forces didn't occur. For a velocity change of the second object to be sensed after the collision, it seems the objects must disconnect before equal and opposite actions may finish (during the time the objects touch, the action/reaction acceleration periods).
Since the magnitude of force applied is said to be exactly the magnitude returned and the direction is said to be exactly opposite, shouldn't no truly equal and opposite collision change the velocity of the second object?
It seems to me that the slightest change of velocity of the second object implies that equal and opposite forces didn't occur. For a velocity change of the second object to be sensed after the collision, it seems the objects must disconnect before equal and opposite actions may finish (during the time the objects touch, the action/reaction acceleration periods).