No Rational Roots of $x^n+\cdots+1=0$

In summary, rational roots are roots of a polynomial equation that can be expressed as a fraction of two integers. It is important to know if a polynomial has rational roots because it can help in solving the equation and understanding its properties. To determine if a polynomial has no rational roots, we can use the Rational Root Theorem which states that if none of the possible rational roots satisfy certain conditions, then the polynomial has no rational roots. If a polynomial has no rational roots, it means that there are no values of the variable(s) that make the equation true when substituted into the polynomial, but it can still have real roots.
  • #1
melese
19
0
(BGR,1989) Prove that for any integer $n>1$ the equation $\displaystyle \frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=0$ has no rational roots.
 
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  • #2
melese said:
(BGR,1989) Prove that for any integer $n>1$ the equation $\displaystyle \frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=0$ has no rational roots.
$\displaystyle \frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=0----(*)$
if n=2 then we have :$x^2+2x+2=0$ no real solution
if m is a solution of original equation then m<0
multiply both sides with n ! we obtain :
$x^n+nx^{n-1}+-----+n! x+ n!=0$
using "the rational zero theorem"
if the original equation has a rational solution m<0 then n! must be a multiple of it(m is a negative integer)
replacing x with any negative factor of n! to (*)will not be zero ,so no rational root exists
in fact :
---+$\displaystyle \frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=e^x$
[FONT=&#32048](Maclaurin expasion of $e^x$)[/FONT]
 
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  • #3
I agreed with you up to
Albert said:
replacing x with any negative factor of n! to (*)will not be zero
This part is a little vauge to me. To see what I mean, what if my orginal question was to show that there are no integer solutions? - Then your step appears hasty.
መለሰ
 
  • #4
Albert said:
$\displaystyle \frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=0----(*)$
if n is even and m (a negative integer ) is a root then (*) becomes
$\displaystyle \frac{m^n}{n!}+\frac{m^{n-2}}{(n-2)!}\cdots+\frac{m^2}{2!}+1$
$- \dfrac{k^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}- \dfrac{k^{n-3}}{(n-3)!}\cdots-\dfrac{k}{1!}$
will not be zero,(the calculation is very tedious)
here k=-m is a positive integer
likewise if n is odd then (*) becomes
$\displaystyle -\frac{k^n}{n!}-\frac{k^{n-2}}{(n-2)!}\cdots-\frac{k^2}{2!}+1$
$+ \dfrac{m^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}+ \dfrac{m^{n-3}}{(n-3)!}\cdots+\dfrac{m}{1!}$
also will not be zero
so there is no integer root for original equation
 
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  • #5


I would first clarify that the statement provided is not entirely accurate. The actual statement should be "no rational roots of $x^n+\cdots+1=0$ exist for any integer $n>1$." This is because the statement implies that there are no rational roots at all, which is not true. For example, the equation $x+1=0$ has a rational root of $-1$.

Moving on to the actual content, the claim that the equation $\frac{x^n}{n!}+\frac{x^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^1}{1!}+1=0$ has no rational roots is also not entirely accurate. It should be stated that for any integer $n>1$, the equation has no rational roots other than the possible root of $-1$. This is because when $x=-1$, all the terms in the equation become $0$, making the equation true.

To prove this statement, we can use the rational root theorem. According to this theorem, if a polynomial equation has a rational root, it must be of the form $\frac{p}{q}$, where $p$ is a factor of the constant term and $q$ is a factor of the leading coefficient. In this case, the constant term is $1$ and the leading coefficient is $\frac{1}{n!}$.

For the equation to have a rational root other than $-1$, $p$ must be a factor of $1$ and $q$ must be a factor of $\frac{1}{n!}$. Since $n>1$, $n!$ is greater than $1$ and therefore, the only possible factor of $\frac{1}{n!}$ is $1$. This means that $q$ can only be $1$, making the root $\frac{p}{q}=p$, where $p$ is any integer.

Substituting $x=p$ in the equation, we get $\frac{p^n}{n!}+\frac{p^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\cdots+\frac{p^2}{2!}+\frac{p^1}{1!}+1=0$. This can be simplified to $\frac{p^n}{n!}+\frac{p^{n-1}}
 

FAQ: No Rational Roots of $x^n+\cdots+1=0$

What is the definition of "rational roots"?

Rational roots are roots of a polynomial equation that can be expressed as a fraction of two integers. For example, in the equation x^2 + 3x + 2 = 0, the rational roots are -2 and -1, since they can be written as -2/1 and -1/1, respectively.

Why is it important to know if a polynomial has rational roots?

Knowing if a polynomial has rational roots can help in solving the equation and finding the values of the variable(s) that make it true. It can also provide insights into the behavior and properties of the polynomial function.

How can we determine if a polynomial has no rational roots?

One method is to use the Rational Root Theorem, which states that if a polynomial with integer coefficients has a rational root p/q, where p and q are integers, then p must be a factor of the constant term and q must be a factor of the leading coefficient. If none of the possible rational roots satisfy this condition, then the polynomial has no rational roots.

What does it mean if a polynomial has no rational roots?

If a polynomial has no rational roots, it means that there are no values of the variable(s) that make the equation true when substituted into the polynomial. This could indicate that the polynomial has only complex roots or that the roots cannot be expressed as rational numbers.

Can a polynomial with no rational roots have any real roots?

Yes, a polynomial with no rational roots can still have real roots. For example, the polynomial x^2 + 2 = 0 has no rational roots, but it has two real roots, √2 and -√2. This is because the Rational Root Theorem only applies to rational roots, not real roots.

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