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mathgirl1
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Let G be a group of order [tex]pm[/tex] where p is a prime and p > m. Suppose H is a subgroup of order p. Show that H is normal in G.
There is a very similar problem
Let |G| = [tex]p^nm[/tex] where p is a prime and [tex]n \ge 1, p > m[/tex]. Show that the Sylow p-subgroup of G is normal in G.
Proof:
Let [tex]n_p[/tex] be the number of Sylow p-subgroups of G. By the 3-d Sylow Subgroup Theorem we know that [tex]n_p \mid m[/tex] and that [tex]n_p \equiv 1 (mod p)[/tex]. Since m < p and [tex]n_p \mid m[/tex], it follows that [tex]1 \le n_p \le m < p[/tex]. Since we also know that [tex]n_p \equiv 1 (mod p)[/tex], it follows that [tex]n_p=1[/tex]. Let P be a Sylow p-subgroup of G. Since for every [tex]g \in G[/tex], [tex]g^{-1}Pg[/tex] is also a Sylow p-subgroup of G and since [tex]n_p=1[/tex], it follows that for every [tex]g \in G[/tex] that [tex]g^{-1}Pg=P[/tex]. Hence P is normal in G, as claimed.
So this is the same problem that I need to solve with n=1. Is there a way to solve this without Sylow Theorems or Sylow subgroups? We barely covered that so not sure we can use it to prove this problem.
Also, why is [tex]g^{-1}Pg[/tex] also a Sylow p-subgroup of G since P is?
Any help is appreciated. I would like to solve this problem without Sylow theorems but not sure where to start cause I am already stuck in this thinking.
Thanks!
There is a very similar problem
Let |G| = [tex]p^nm[/tex] where p is a prime and [tex]n \ge 1, p > m[/tex]. Show that the Sylow p-subgroup of G is normal in G.
Proof:
Let [tex]n_p[/tex] be the number of Sylow p-subgroups of G. By the 3-d Sylow Subgroup Theorem we know that [tex]n_p \mid m[/tex] and that [tex]n_p \equiv 1 (mod p)[/tex]. Since m < p and [tex]n_p \mid m[/tex], it follows that [tex]1 \le n_p \le m < p[/tex]. Since we also know that [tex]n_p \equiv 1 (mod p)[/tex], it follows that [tex]n_p=1[/tex]. Let P be a Sylow p-subgroup of G. Since for every [tex]g \in G[/tex], [tex]g^{-1}Pg[/tex] is also a Sylow p-subgroup of G and since [tex]n_p=1[/tex], it follows that for every [tex]g \in G[/tex] that [tex]g^{-1}Pg=P[/tex]. Hence P is normal in G, as claimed.
So this is the same problem that I need to solve with n=1. Is there a way to solve this without Sylow Theorems or Sylow subgroups? We barely covered that so not sure we can use it to prove this problem.
Also, why is [tex]g^{-1}Pg[/tex] also a Sylow p-subgroup of G since P is?
Any help is appreciated. I would like to solve this problem without Sylow theorems but not sure where to start cause I am already stuck in this thinking.
Thanks!