- #1
kent davidge
- 933
- 56
Consider that a vector can be represented in two different basis. My question is do we need to normalize both basis before taking the inner product?
What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.
What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.