- #1
kelly0303
- 580
- 33
Hello! The transition wavelength between 2 energy levels for an atom depends on the nuclear isotope through the mass of the isotope and the size of the nucleus. My question is only about the nuclear size effect. It can be shown that this effect can be written as (this is basically a taylor expansion):
$$\nu = \nu_0+F<r^2>+G(<r^2>)^2+...$$
where ##\nu_0## is the transition assuming a point nucleus, ##<r^2>## is the mean square nuclear radius and F and G are some parameters that depend on the electronic transition. Usually in literature (except for the super sensitive measurements), the higher order terms are dropped and only the F term is kept (this is how the so called King linearity of the isotope shift is obtained). I am not sure why we can drop the higher order terms. Let's say that ##<r^2> = 5fm^2##, which is a reasonable value. Then ##<r^2>^2 = 25fm^4##. I guess I am confused about the units. If we write this in terms of meters, the second term is smaller by a factor of ##10^{-30}##, but can't we redefine units and treat 1 fm as the unit and in this case the ##<r^2>^2## term would be actually bigger? In QED, for example, the expansion is in terms of ##\alpha##, which is unitless, so there is no confusion there. But here I am a bit confused. Can someone help me understand it? Thank you!
$$\nu = \nu_0+F<r^2>+G(<r^2>)^2+...$$
where ##\nu_0## is the transition assuming a point nucleus, ##<r^2>## is the mean square nuclear radius and F and G are some parameters that depend on the electronic transition. Usually in literature (except for the super sensitive measurements), the higher order terms are dropped and only the F term is kept (this is how the so called King linearity of the isotope shift is obtained). I am not sure why we can drop the higher order terms. Let's say that ##<r^2> = 5fm^2##, which is a reasonable value. Then ##<r^2>^2 = 25fm^4##. I guess I am confused about the units. If we write this in terms of meters, the second term is smaller by a factor of ##10^{-30}##, but can't we redefine units and treat 1 fm as the unit and in this case the ##<r^2>^2## term would be actually bigger? In QED, for example, the expansion is in terms of ##\alpha##, which is unitless, so there is no confusion there. But here I am a bit confused. Can someone help me understand it? Thank you!