- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
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Hey!
Let the finite group $G$ act transitively on the set $\Omega$. Then the action of $G$ and on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is defined as follows $(a,b)\cdot x=(a\cdot x, b\cdot x)$.
Let $a\in \Omega$.
Show that the number of orbits of $G$ on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is equal to the number of orbits of $G_a$ on $\Omega$. From the fact that the finite group $G$ acts transitively on the set $\Omega$, we have that there is just one orbit on $\Omega$, i.e. $\forall \omega_1, \omega_2\in \Omega, \exists g\in G$ such that $g*\omega_1=\omega_2$, right? (Wondering) Could you give me some hints how we could show the equality of the two number of orbits? (Wondering)
Let the finite group $G$ act transitively on the set $\Omega$. Then the action of $G$ and on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is defined as follows $(a,b)\cdot x=(a\cdot x, b\cdot x)$.
Let $a\in \Omega$.
Show that the number of orbits of $G$ on $\Omega\times\Omega$ is equal to the number of orbits of $G_a$ on $\Omega$. From the fact that the finite group $G$ acts transitively on the set $\Omega$, we have that there is just one orbit on $\Omega$, i.e. $\forall \omega_1, \omega_2\in \Omega, \exists g\in G$ such that $g*\omega_1=\omega_2$, right? (Wondering) Could you give me some hints how we could show the equality of the two number of orbits? (Wondering)