- #1
kiuhnm
- 66
- 1
I'm reading Scheck's book about Mechanics and it says that Newton's first law is not redundant as it defines what an inertial system is. My problem is that we could say the same about Newton's second law. Indeed, Newton's second law is only valid, in general, for inertial systems, so it also defines them.
Therefore, I think Newton's first law doesn't just define what an inertial system is, but, more importantly, states they exist (which is not obvious).
What do you think?
Therefore, I think Newton's first law doesn't just define what an inertial system is, but, more importantly, states they exist (which is not obvious).
What do you think?