- #1
wclawson
- 17
- 0
It was much easier scanning the pictures and problem than trying to recreate:
I began by doing a source transform, making Vs = is*Rs, and placing Rs in series instead of parallel. I then did KCL at Vn.
I tried to break the KCL eq down to il/is, but just ended up with some un-godly mess that ended up approximating to 0 for part b. Is the source transform throwing me off? Or is there just a much easier way to solve this than what I tried.
Thanks a lot.
I began by doing a source transform, making Vs = is*Rs, and placing Rs in series instead of parallel. I then did KCL at Vn.
I tried to break the KCL eq down to il/is, but just ended up with some un-godly mess that ended up approximating to 0 for part b. Is the source transform throwing me off? Or is there just a much easier way to solve this than what I tried.
Thanks a lot.