- #1
JamesGoh
- 143
- 0
Say we have an ODE
[itex]\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0[/itex]
Now, we introduce a point of interest [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
considered as an
ordinary point ?
Now let's do some multiplication with [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
still being
the point of interest
[itex](x-x_{0})p(x)[/itex] (1)
and
[itex](x-x_{0})^{2}q(x)[/itex] (2)
If (1) and (2) remain finite, is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
considered as a regular singular point ?
Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
an irregular singular point ?
thanks in advance
[itex]\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0[/itex]
Now, we introduce a point of interest [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
considered as an
ordinary point ?
Now let's do some multiplication with [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
still being
the point of interest
[itex](x-x_{0})p(x)[/itex] (1)
and
[itex](x-x_{0})^{2}q(x)[/itex] (2)
If (1) and (2) remain finite, is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
considered as a regular singular point ?
Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is [itex]x_{0}[/itex]
an irregular singular point ?
thanks in advance