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Txema
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- TL;DR Summary
- Does Hertzian dipole radiation originate from charges or current?
In various books, blogs, etc., the Hertz dipole radiation is presented and visualized as field lines that lose their link to the pole charges due to the retarded value of the fields at distant points, lines that close on themselves and jump into space as waves. From this it can be deduced that the (far) radiant field of the dipole has a scalar origin, i.e., it is a field generated by the electric charges.
On the other hand, the expressions that determine the Hertz dipole fields are usually obtained from their electric and magnetic potentials.
E=−∇ϕ−∂A∂t
The gradient of the electric potential defines the electric field of scalar origin (charges), while the derivative with respect to time of the magnetic potential defines the electric field with vector origin (current density). Equations are obtained in spherical coordinates that contain terms that decrease with distance according to 1/r3 (cube), 1/r2 (square) and 1/r. The latter is the preponderant term in the far field, represents the dipole radiation, and comes not from the gradient of the electric potential but from the derivative of the magnetic potential, so it can be thought that it is a field generated by the current, not by the charges.
These are contradictory deductions, is one of them correct, and if so, why not the other?
Any help would be appreciated.
On the other hand, the expressions that determine the Hertz dipole fields are usually obtained from their electric and magnetic potentials.
E=−∇ϕ−∂A∂t
The gradient of the electric potential defines the electric field of scalar origin (charges), while the derivative with respect to time of the magnetic potential defines the electric field with vector origin (current density). Equations are obtained in spherical coordinates that contain terms that decrease with distance according to 1/r3 (cube), 1/r2 (square) and 1/r. The latter is the preponderant term in the far field, represents the dipole radiation, and comes not from the gradient of the electric potential but from the derivative of the magnetic potential, so it can be thought that it is a field generated by the current, not by the charges.
These are contradictory deductions, is one of them correct, and if so, why not the other?
Any help would be appreciated.