PDE - Two Dimensional Wave Equation

In summary, the given boundary value problem is solved by finding the Bmn coefficients and using them in the double Fourier series formula for the solution. The final solution is obtained by substituting the initial conditions for u and ut into the double Fourier series solution and solving for the coefficients. The final solution is u(x,y,t)=sin3πx sin πy cos√10t.
  • #1
erok81
464
0

Homework Statement



Solve the boundary value problem (1)-(3) with a=b=1, c=1/Π

[tex]f(x)=sin(3 \pi x) sin(\pi y),g(x)=0[/tex]

[tex](1)\frac{\partial^{2}u}{\partial t^{2}}=c^{2}\left(\frac{\partial^{2}u}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2}u}{\partial y^{2}}\right)[/tex] 0 < x < a, 0< y <b, t > 0

(2) u(0,y,t)=0 and u(a,y,t)=0 for 0 ≤ y ≤ b, t ≥ 0
(2) u(x,0,t)=0 and u(x,b,t)=0 for 0 ≤ y ≤ b, t ≥ 0

(3) u(x,y,0)=f(x,y) and ut(x,y,0)=g(x,y)

Homework Equations



[tex]B_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0}f(x,y)sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy[/tex]

[tex]B^{*}_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab \lambda_{mn}}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0} g(x,y)sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy[/tex]

[tex]\lambda_{mn}=c \pi \sqrt{\frac{m^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{n^{2}}{b^{2}}[/tex]

There is one more to combine it all, but I'm not there yet.

The Attempt at a Solution



So we had a huge storm here and long story short, I missed class when we went over this. Which sucks because I have no idea how to do these. I am fine deriving most of up until actually finding values. Here is where I am...

I started finding the Bmn's first.

[tex]B^{*}_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab \lambda_{mn}}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0} 0*sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy[/tex]

Since g(x,y)=0, this should also equal zero.

[tex]B_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0}sin(3 \pi x) sin(\pi y) sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy[/tex]

This gave me a solution of...

[tex]B_{mn}=\frac{12sin(\pi n)sin(\pi m)}{\pi^{2} (-9n^{2}+9+m^{2}n^{2}-m^{2}}[/tex]

This will give me zero as well, except when m=n=0 (which I just realized typing this out.

Next up I have λmn=√(m2+n2)

So first, how do I represent that B value when it's only valid when n=m=0?

The last part of the problem is combining everything. The model is:

[tex]\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \sum^{\infty}_{m=1}\left(B_{mn} cos\lambda_{mn}t+B^{*}_{mn}sin\lambda_{mn}t)sin(m \pi x) sin(n \pi y)[/tex]

So...I'm not how to represent my answer as I mentioned above.

The book shows an answer of u(x,y,t)=sin3πx sin πy cos√10t

I definitely don't see how to get here. Mainly because the sum terms go away. Could that be because it's only valid when n=m=0? Also, the model contains m and n's but the final answer doesn't. The only way I can see they got values for those is from the given f(x). In that case m=3 and n=1 - which matches the book. Is that correct way for the last part?
 
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  • #2
I haven't checked all the missing steps, but the short answer to your question is this.

If you put t = 0 in your solution you get

[tex]
u(x,y,0)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \sum^{\infty}_{m=1}\left(B_{mn}^* )sin(m \pi x) sin(n \pi y)

= f(x,y) = \sin(3 \pi x) \sin(\pi y)
[/tex]

Notice that the term on the right is one of the terms on the left, namely when m = 3 and n = 1. That tells you B*31 = 1 and the others are all zero. Then do a similar thing with the initial condition on ut.
 
  • #3
All of the missing steps are correct. I tried deriving it all to make sure I could. But everything - with the exception of my Bmn solution since I found that.

Now I see what you are doing with t = 0. Is that how solves for the mn's? If not, all I can see that giving me is just to affirm my givens.

On another note: How would I express my Bmn how it is only valid when m=n=0
 
  • #4
erok81 said:
All of the missing steps are correct. I tried deriving it all to make sure I could. But everything - with the exception of my Bmn solution since I found that.

Now I see what you are doing with t = 0. Is that how solves for the mn's? If not, all I can see that giving me is just to affirm my givens.

On another note: How would I express my Bmn how it is only valid when m=n=0

It is simple to get the Fourier coefficients on this problem because your f(x,y) is already a finite Fourier series. So most of the B's are zero and you just get one term.

Generally you have to solve for the coefficients using the double Fourier series formulas for the coefficients. Your text probably talks about this or you can look here for example:

http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/FourierSineAndCosineSeries.html
 
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  • #5
Thanks, that link helped.

I guess the only part I am hung on up on how this one ends with an non-summation answer. All of the 1D wave equation problems I did all ended with some sort of summation series keeping n/m in tact. This one is u(x,y,t)=sin3πx sin πy cos√10t.
EDIT
Disregard what I said above. The answer in the book isn't the full answer. That's why the summation is missing.

There are really only two things I don't get. Solving for the m and n. Do I just use the IC like you did above? But then does that only apply to some of the m/n's? If they were all computed, that would make the summation pointless.

And then the legit values for when m=n=0. My Bmn is zero at all values except when they equal zero. I don't see anywhere in my text or that link on how to resolve this.
 
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  • #6
Oh wow. This is what happens when you study all day.

My Bmn is always zero. Not just when m=n=0.

So now my only problem is my solution is zero since both B's are zero.
 
  • #7
erok81 said:
Oh wow. This is what happens when you study all day.

My Bmn is always zero. Not just when m=n=0.

So now my only problem is my solution is zero since both B's are zero.

They aren't all zero. Read reply #2 again.
 
  • #8
For my B term I have these as solutions. Are these incorrect?

[tex]
B_{mn}=\frac{12sin(\pi n)sin(\pi m)}{\pi^{2} (-9n^{2}+9+m^{2}n^{2}-m^{2}}
[/tex]

[tex]
B^{*}_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab \lambda_{mn}}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0} 0*sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy = 0
[/tex]

I see the reply stating I should end up with one term. I don't see how though. Whatever value I use I get zero.
 
  • #9
LCKurtz said:
I haven't checked all the missing steps, but the short answer to your question is this.

If you put t = 0 in your solution you get

[tex]
u(x,y,0)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \sum^{\infty}_{m=1}\left(B_{mn}^* )sin(m \pi x) sin(n \pi y)

= f(x,y) = \sin(3 \pi x) \sin(\pi y)
[/tex]

Notice that the term on the right is one of the terms on the left, namely when m = 3 and n = 1. That tells you B*31 = 1 and the others are all zero. Then do a similar thing with the initial condition on ut.
[Edit] I see a mistake in the above quote of post #2. It should read if you put t = 0 you get

[tex]
u(x,y,0)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \sum^{\infty}_{m=1}\left(B_{mn} )sin(m \pi x) sin(n \pi y)

= f(x,y) = \sin(3 \pi x) \sin(\pi y)
[/tex]

with no * on the B. And the conclusion is that B31 = 1, not B*31 = 1.
erok81 said:
For my B term I have these as solutions. Are these incorrect?

[tex]
B_{mn}=\frac{12sin(\pi n)sin(\pi m)}{\pi^{2} (-9n^{2}+9+m^{2}n^{2}-m^{2}}
[/tex]

[tex]
B^{*}_{mn}=\frac{4}{ab \lambda_{mn}}\int^{1}_{0} \int^{1}_{0} 0*sin\frac{m \pi x}{a}sin\frac{n \pi x}{b}dxdy = 0
[/tex]

I see the reply stating I should end up with one term. I don't see how though. Whatever value I use I get zero.

Your formula for Bmn doesn't work when m = 3 and n = 1. But you are missing the point about the corrected series for u(x,y,0) above. You don't have to use the formulas to figure out the Bmn. Just look at it and you will see that if B31 = 1 and the other B's are zero you have equality. And since you have shown that the B*s are all zero, you do have just that one term in your solution.
 
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FAQ: PDE - Two Dimensional Wave Equation

What is the Two Dimensional Wave Equation?

The Two Dimensional Wave Equation, also known as the wave equation, is a partial differential equation that describes the propagation of waves in a two-dimensional space. It is commonly used in physics and engineering to model various wave phenomena, such as sound, light, and water waves.

What are the applications of the Two Dimensional Wave Equation?

The Two Dimensional Wave Equation has many applications in different fields of science and engineering. It is used to model and understand various wave phenomena, such as sound waves in musical instruments, electromagnetic waves in communication systems, and water waves in oceanography. It is also used in the study of seismic waves, heat transfer, and quantum mechanics.

How is the Two Dimensional Wave Equation solved?

The Two Dimensional Wave Equation is typically solved using a variety of analytical and numerical methods. Analytical solutions involve using mathematical techniques, such as separation of variables and Fourier series, to find exact solutions. Numerical methods, such as finite difference and finite element methods, are also commonly used to approximate solutions for more complex systems.

What are the boundary conditions for the Two Dimensional Wave Equation?

The boundary conditions for the Two Dimensional Wave Equation depend on the specific problem being solved. In general, there are two types of boundary conditions: initial conditions and boundary conditions. Initial conditions specify the initial state of the system at t=0, while boundary conditions specify the behavior of the wave at the boundaries of the system. Examples of boundary conditions include fixed boundary, free boundary, and periodic boundary conditions.

How is the Two Dimensional Wave Equation related to the One Dimensional Wave Equation?

The Two Dimensional Wave Equation is an extension of the One Dimensional Wave Equation, which describes wave propagation in one-dimensional space. The One Dimensional Wave Equation is a special case of the Two Dimensional Wave Equation, where one of the spatial dimensions is assumed to be constant. Both equations have similar forms and can be solved using similar methods, with the Two Dimensional Wave Equation being more complex due to the additional dimension.

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