- #1
jeannie165
- 7
- 0
Can someone help me? I need to prove that for m>=2, m permutations can be written as at most m-1 transpositions. I can't figure this out for the life of me! thanks in advance ![Confused :confused: :confused:](data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///yH5BAEAAAAALAAAAAABAAEAAAIBRAA7)
Last edited: