- #1
spaghetti3451
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- 34
In page 4, Peskin and Schroeder has the following diagram:
The diagram shows the collision of an electron beam and a positron beam to produce a ##\mu^{+}## beam a ##\mu^{-}## beam.
My question is this:
The electron and positron beams are shown to have momenta ##\textbf{p}## and ##\textbf{p}'##.
But the muon beams are shown to have momenta ##\textbf{k}## and ##\textbf{k}'##.
##\textbf{p}## is standard notation for momentum, but ##\textbf{k}## is standard notation for wavevector. But then, in natural units, ##\hbar=1##.
Therefore, is the different use of symbols for momenta a matter of notational difference, or is there some underlying physics I am missing?
The diagram shows the collision of an electron beam and a positron beam to produce a ##\mu^{+}## beam a ##\mu^{-}## beam.
My question is this:
The electron and positron beams are shown to have momenta ##\textbf{p}## and ##\textbf{p}'##.
But the muon beams are shown to have momenta ##\textbf{k}## and ##\textbf{k}'##.
##\textbf{p}## is standard notation for momentum, but ##\textbf{k}## is standard notation for wavevector. But then, in natural units, ##\hbar=1##.
Therefore, is the different use of symbols for momenta a matter of notational difference, or is there some underlying physics I am missing?