Physical Meaning of the Imaginary Part of a Wave Function

In summary, the imaginary part of a wave function in quantum mechanics plays a crucial role in describing the probability amplitude of a quantum system. It contributes to the overall phase of the wave function, influencing interference patterns and the behavior of particles. While the wave function itself is often complex, the imaginary component aids in calculating observable quantities, such as probability densities, and helps in understanding phenomena like superposition and entanglement. Overall, the imaginary part is essential for a complete description of quantum states and their dynamics.
  • #1
deuteron
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As far as I've encountered, the imaginary part of functions describing physical phenomena have a physical meaning too. What is the physical meaning of the imaginary part of the wave function for the plane wave?
We know the wave function:
$$ \frac {\partial^2\psi}{\partial t^2}=\frac {\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}v^2,$$

where the function ##\psi(x,t)=A\ e^{i(kx-\omega t)}## satisfies the wave function and is used to describe plane waves, which can be written as:

$$ \psi(x,t)=A\ [\cos(kx-\omega t)+i\sin(kx-\omega t)]$$

Here, the real part of the equation alone, ##\Re(\psi)=A\cos(kx-\omega t)##, also describes a plane wave, however what is the physical meaning of the imaginary part? I know that in QM, since ##|\psi|## depends on the imaginary part too, it has some physical relevance, but my question is not necessarily limited to quantum mechanics. I have seen other similar questions, but I unfortunately haven't seen a satisfying answer
The motivation behind my question is that so far the complex parts of physical variables I have encountered also have a physical meaning: The complex part of the refraction index corresponds to the absorption, the complex part of the scattering amplitude indicates the existence of inelastic processes; that's why I am curious

If it doesn't have a meaning, why don't we say that ##A\sin(kx-\omega t),\ A\cos(kx-\omega t)## and ##A\exp[i(kx-\omega t)]## all satisfy the wave equation, where we don't know the physical meaning of the exponential one?
 
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  • #2
It depends of course on the physics you consider. If your field, ##\psi##, is a real quantity you look of course only for real solutions. Since it's a linear differential equation with real coefficients for any complex solution you get two real solutions by taking ##\mathrm{Re} \psi## and ##\mathrm{Im} \psi##.

As an initial-value problem the solution is uniquely determined by giving initial values ##\psi_0(t=0,x)=f(x)## and ##\partial_t \psi_0(t=0,x)=g(x)##.

Sometimes you have in addition also boundary constraints (e.g., if ##\psi## displacement of a string of length ##L## you have ##\psi(t,0)=\psi(t,L)=0##).

Note that the general solution of the (1+1)d wave equation is given by
$$\psi(t,x)=\psi_1(x-vt) + \psi_2(x+vt)$$
with arbitrary functions ##\psi_1## and ##\psi_2##, i.e., you have enough "freedom" to fulfill the initial and boundary conditions.
 
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