- #1
AlexB23
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- TL;DR Summary
- Hello guys, and am new here. A week ago I was working on a fictional measurement system, and the Planck's impedance came out of it after some dimensional analysis.
The measurements system is defined by the following base units:
1 Berkel = 0.8590488 seconds (1,220,197,850 oscillations of the hydrogen atom in a hyperfine state)
1 Dist'al = 0.2575363 meters
(Speed of light multiplied by 1×10⁻⁹ Berkels)
1 Hef'al = 17.08109 kg
(Mass of 1 cubic dist'al of water at 4°C)
1 Muncie = 0.2441514114 Amp
(Amount of force per dist'al of two infinite wires separated by one dist'al is equal to 2×10⁻⁹ force units when the current is 1 Muncie)
Somehow, the derived unit of resistance in this fictional measurement system is equal to 29.9792458 Ohms, when doing the dimensional analysis, which is the same value as Planck's impedance. Why is that?
1 Berkel = 0.8590488 seconds (1,220,197,850 oscillations of the hydrogen atom in a hyperfine state)
1 Dist'al = 0.2575363 meters
(Speed of light multiplied by 1×10⁻⁹ Berkels)
1 Hef'al = 17.08109 kg
(Mass of 1 cubic dist'al of water at 4°C)
1 Muncie = 0.2441514114 Amp
(Amount of force per dist'al of two infinite wires separated by one dist'al is equal to 2×10⁻⁹ force units when the current is 1 Muncie)
Somehow, the derived unit of resistance in this fictional measurement system is equal to 29.9792458 Ohms, when doing the dimensional analysis, which is the same value as Planck's impedance. Why is that?
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