- #1
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I just want to check something I'm not sure on. If at point P; [itex]f'(x) = 0[/itex] and [itex]f''(x) = 0 [/itex] and [itex]f'''(x) \neq 0[/itex] can we definatly say that point P is a point of inflection?
Regards,
~Hoot
Regards,
~Hoot