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Pierre13
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Hello! I'm having a problem with the Green's function solution of the simplest case of Poisson's equation, namely a single test charge ##q## located at ##\boldsymbol r = \boldsymbol r'##. I've read the related posts on Poisson's equation via Green's function formalism, but they do not answer my specific question:
In Gaussian units Poisson's equation for the potential reads
$$ \nabla^2 \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = -4 \pi \varrho(\boldsymbol r).$$
The Green's function of the inhomogeneous PDE must satisfy
$$ \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r').$$
Some authors [Arfken, Weber: Mathematical Methods for Physicists] use ##-\delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## and get a Green's function with reversed sign, but this is solely convention. The Green's function is found to be (I know how to derive this result):
$$ G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = - \frac{1}{4\pi} \frac{1}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}.$$
The solution of the Poisson equation follows from the 2nd of Green's theorems and reads
$$ \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = \int \mathrm{d}^3 r' \, G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') \cdot (-) 4 \pi \varrho(\boldsymbol r'),$$
i.e. the convolution of the Green's function with the inhomogeneity of the PDE. So far, so good - everything's straight forward.
Now here's the problem: If I want to use the above convolution integral to solve Poisson's equation for a single test charge ##q## at ##\boldsymbol r = \boldsymbol r'## and I naively convolute ##G(\boldsymbol r,\boldsymbol r')## with ##-4 \pi q \, \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## I get a problem doing the convolution, since this would mean
$$ \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = \int \mathrm{d}^3 r' \, \frac{\delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|} q \stackrel{\boldsymbol r' \to \boldsymbol r}{\longrightarrow} \infty,$$
so obviously this naive attempt to do the convolution does not work! On the other hand the textbooks say that ##G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r')## already is by definition the potential due a point charge ##q=1## at ##\boldsymbol r'##. So my questions are:
$$ \nabla ^2 \frac{1}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|} = - 4 \pi \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')$$
$$ \Rightarrow \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r') = \nabla^2 \frac{-1}{4 \pi |\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
Substitution of this result for the delta function in the above ## \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = - 4 \pi q \, \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## one obtains
$$ \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \nabla^2 \frac{q}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
or equivalently
$$ G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \frac{q}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
Now this Green's function is indeed the potential of the test charge, it contains ##q## as arbitrary strength of the point charge and no wrong prefactors ##-1/4\pi##.
While the convolution for arbitrary charge distribution ##\varrho(\boldsymbol r')## can be found in many textbooks, the simple case for the single point charge with Green's functions is discussed nowhere despite the obvious subtlety that arises when trying to convolute it with a delta function.
Many thanks in advance - any help is appreciated!
Pierre
In Gaussian units Poisson's equation for the potential reads
$$ \nabla^2 \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = -4 \pi \varrho(\boldsymbol r).$$
The Green's function of the inhomogeneous PDE must satisfy
$$ \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r').$$
Some authors [Arfken, Weber: Mathematical Methods for Physicists] use ##-\delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## and get a Green's function with reversed sign, but this is solely convention. The Green's function is found to be (I know how to derive this result):
$$ G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = - \frac{1}{4\pi} \frac{1}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}.$$
The solution of the Poisson equation follows from the 2nd of Green's theorems and reads
$$ \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = \int \mathrm{d}^3 r' \, G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') \cdot (-) 4 \pi \varrho(\boldsymbol r'),$$
i.e. the convolution of the Green's function with the inhomogeneity of the PDE. So far, so good - everything's straight forward.
Now here's the problem: If I want to use the above convolution integral to solve Poisson's equation for a single test charge ##q## at ##\boldsymbol r = \boldsymbol r'## and I naively convolute ##G(\boldsymbol r,\boldsymbol r')## with ##-4 \pi q \, \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## I get a problem doing the convolution, since this would mean
$$ \varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = \int \mathrm{d}^3 r' \, \frac{\delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|} q \stackrel{\boldsymbol r' \to \boldsymbol r}{\longrightarrow} \infty,$$
so obviously this naive attempt to do the convolution does not work! On the other hand the textbooks say that ##G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r')## already is by definition the potential due a point charge ##q=1## at ##\boldsymbol r'##. So my questions are:
- What's wrong with the above convolution integral? Does this have to do something with the infinitely high self energy of a point charge?
- How to write down the solution with Green's function formalism for the point charge, simply writing ##\varPhi(\boldsymbol r) = G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = - \frac{1}{4 \pi |\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}## is wrong by a factor ##-1/4\pi## and after all - how can this be generalized from ##q = 1\,\mathrm{esu}## to arbitrary charge ##q \neq 1##?
$$ \nabla ^2 \frac{1}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|} = - 4 \pi \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')$$
$$ \Rightarrow \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r') = \nabla^2 \frac{-1}{4 \pi |\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
Substitution of this result for the delta function in the above ## \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = - 4 \pi q \, \delta(\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r')## one obtains
$$ \nabla^2 G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \nabla^2 \frac{q}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
or equivalently
$$ G(\boldsymbol r, \boldsymbol r') = \frac{q}{|\boldsymbol r - \boldsymbol r'|}$$
Now this Green's function is indeed the potential of the test charge, it contains ##q## as arbitrary strength of the point charge and no wrong prefactors ##-1/4\pi##.
While the convolution for arbitrary charge distribution ##\varrho(\boldsymbol r')## can be found in many textbooks, the simple case for the single point charge with Green's functions is discussed nowhere despite the obvious subtlety that arises when trying to convolute it with a delta function.
Many thanks in advance - any help is appreciated!
Pierre