- #1
Caveman11
- 11
- 0
Hi all,
I've been having a problem with understanding some of the van der Waals forces. I understand that the polarizability of a induced-fixed dipole interation is:
\begin{equation}\alpha =4\pi\epsilon r^{3} \end{equation}
Which leads to the potential field (assuming two different substances):
\begin{equation}
U(r)=-\displaystyle\frac{\mu_{1}^{2}\alpha_{2}+\mu_{2}^{2}\alpha_{1}}{16\pi^{2}\epsilon^{2}r^{6}}
\end{equation}
and therefore the force between them.
My problem lies with the fixed dipole-dipole interaction. Now I understand that the polarizability has to take into account the orientation of the molecule/atom to give:
\begin{equation}\alpha =4\pi\epsilon r^{3} + \displaystyle\frac{\mu^{2}}{3k_{B}T} \end{equation}
This is where I get confused. I have read in "Scanning force microscopy-Dror Sarid" that the potential field between two fixed dipoles does not take into acount there polarizability
\begin{equation}
U(r)=-\displaystyle\frac{\mu_{1}^{2}\mu_{2}^{2}}{48\pi^{2}\epsilon^{2}KTr^{6}}
\end{equation}
Why is that?
Sorry for the lengthy post and thankyou in advance.
Nick
I've been having a problem with understanding some of the van der Waals forces. I understand that the polarizability of a induced-fixed dipole interation is:
\begin{equation}\alpha =4\pi\epsilon r^{3} \end{equation}
Which leads to the potential field (assuming two different substances):
\begin{equation}
U(r)=-\displaystyle\frac{\mu_{1}^{2}\alpha_{2}+\mu_{2}^{2}\alpha_{1}}{16\pi^{2}\epsilon^{2}r^{6}}
\end{equation}
and therefore the force between them.
My problem lies with the fixed dipole-dipole interaction. Now I understand that the polarizability has to take into account the orientation of the molecule/atom to give:
\begin{equation}\alpha =4\pi\epsilon r^{3} + \displaystyle\frac{\mu^{2}}{3k_{B}T} \end{equation}
This is where I get confused. I have read in "Scanning force microscopy-Dror Sarid" that the potential field between two fixed dipoles does not take into acount there polarizability
\begin{equation}
U(r)=-\displaystyle\frac{\mu_{1}^{2}\mu_{2}^{2}}{48\pi^{2}\epsilon^{2}KTr^{6}}
\end{equation}
Why is that?
Sorry for the lengthy post and thankyou in advance.
Nick