In summary, for the given problem, the wavefunctions can be expressed in terms of ##b##, ##l_b##, and Laguerre polynomials. The first three Landau levels are represented by ##\psi_{(n=0)(l=0,1,2)}## and the expectation value of ##r^2## is equivalent to finding it for ##x^2+y^2##.
  • #1
Mr_Allod
42
16
Homework Statement
a. Find ##\psi_{0,0}(x,y)## for a 2D harmonic oscillator in a magnetic field.
b. Find the expectation values of ##x^2 + y^2## for the first 3 Landau levels
Relevant Equations
Hamiltonian: ##H = \frac {(-i\hbar\nabla -e \vec A)}{2m} + \frac {m\omega_0^2}{2}(x^2+y^2)##
Landau Gauge: ##\vec A = (-\frac {yB}{2},\frac {xB}{2},0)##
Hello there, for the above problem the wavefunctions can be shown to be:

$$\psi_{n,l}=\left[ \frac {b}{2\pi l_b^2} \frac{n!}{2^l(n+l)!}\right]^{\frac12} \exp{(-il\theta - \frac {r^2\sqrt{b}}{4l_b^2})} \left( \frac {r\sqrt{b}}{l_b}\right)^lL_n^l(\frac {r^2b}{4l_b^2})$$

Here ##b = \sqrt{1 + 4\frac{\omega^2}{\omega_H^2}}## and ##l_b## is the magnetic length ##\sqrt{\frac {\hbar}{eb}}## and ##L_n^l## are Laguerre polynomials. Also ##r = \sqrt{x^2+y^2}##.

And assuming that's correct that would make the ##\psi_{0,0} = \frac {1}{2\pi l_b^2}exp(\frac {-ar^2}{4l_b^2})##. Now the first thing I'm not sure about is what can I consider to be the first three Landau Levels, would it be ##\psi_{(n=0)(l=0,1,2)}## or ##\psi_{(n = 0,1,2)(l=0) }##?

Also would I be correct in assuming that finding the expectation value of ##r^2## would be the equivalent of finding it for ##x^2+y^2##? I would appreciate some insight into this thank you!
 
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  • #2
Yes, you are correct in assuming that the expectation value of ##r^2## is equivalent to finding it for ##x^2+y^2##. The first three Landau levels are given by ##\psi_{(n=0)(l=0,1,2)}##.
 
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