I know this problem is way beyond my level, but I worked really hard. (1 full week)
After seeing the solution I see my work is nonsense.
Is it all rubbish or is there a tiny bit that can be saved?
I know this problem is way beyond my level, but I worked really hard. (1 full week)
After seeing the solution I see my work is nonsense.
Is it all rubbish or is there a tiny bit that can be saved?
Hi veronica1999, :)
When you substitute, \(t=e^{ax}\) the limits of integration should be changed appropriately.
As \(x\rightarrow\infty\), \(t\rightarrow\infty\) and as \(x\rightarrow -\infty\), \(t\rightarrow 0\). Also, \(dt=ae^{ax}\,dx=at\,dx\). Therefore after substitution the integral becomes,
I cannot guarantee that this approach would work. However this is one of the mistakes that you have done at the very beginning.
Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.
#3
Opalg
Gold Member
MHB
2,778
13
To my mind, the best way to evaluate $\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{ax}}{1+e^x}\,dx$ is to use contour integration. Admittedly, this means that you need to know the residue theorem, but on the other hand it avoids the use of beta and gamma functions (which I dislike).
The idea is to evaluate $\displaystyle \oint_C \frac{e^{az}}{1+e^z}\,dz$, where $C$ is the contour that goes anticlockwise round the rectangle with vertices at $\pm R$ on the real axis and the points $\pm R + 2\pi i.$ When $R$ is large, the integrals along the two vertical sides of the rectangle become small (because of the condition $0<a<1$). The sum of the integrals along the two horizontal sides is $\displaystyle \int_{-R}^R \frac{e^{ax}(1-e^{2\pi ai})}{1+e^x}\,dx.$ There is just one singularity of the integrand inside the contour, at the point $\pi i$, and the residue there is $-e^{\pi ai}.$
Letting $R\to\infty$ and using the residue theorem, you find that $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{ax}}{1+e^x}\,dx = \frac{-2\pi ie^{\pi ai}}{1-e^{2\pi ai}} = \frac\pi{{\scriptscriptstyle\frac1{2i}}(e^{\pi ai} - e^{-\pi ai})} = \frac\pi{\sin \pi a}\,.$$
Hi everybody
If we have not any answers for critical points after first partial derivatives equal to zero, how can we continue to find local MAX, local MIN and Saddle point?. For example: Suppose we have below equations for first partial derivatives:
∂ƒ/∂x = y + 5 , ∂ƒ/∂y = 2z , ∂ƒ/∂z = y
As you can see, for ∇ƒ= 0 , there are not any answers (undefined)