- #1
Castilla
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I have learned that if a function of one real variable can be defined as a power series, then this one is its Taylor series.
Does the same occur with functions of 2 real variables? I mean, if a function f(x, y) can be defined as a power series, does this series is the Taylor series of f(x, y)?
Thanks for help.
Does the same occur with functions of 2 real variables? I mean, if a function f(x, y) can be defined as a power series, does this series is the Taylor series of f(x, y)?
Thanks for help.