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I have a problem in understanding the proof to Dummit and Foote Section 15.2, Proposition 19 regarding primary ideals. I hope someone can help.
My problem is with Proposition 19 part 4 - but note that part 4 relies on part 2 - see attachment.
The relevant sections of Proposition 19 read as follows: (see attachment)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Proposition 19.
Let R be a commutative ring with 1
... ...
(2) The ideal Q is primary if and only if every zero divisor in R/Q is nilpotent.
... ...
(4) If Q is an ideal whose radical is a maximal ideal. then Q is a primary ideal
... ... etc
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The proof of (4) above proceeds as follows:
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Proof. (see attachment)
... ...
To prove (4) we pass to the quotient ring R/Q: by (2) it suffices to show that every zero divisor in this quotient ring is nilpotent.
We are reduced to the situation where Q = (0) and M = rad Q = rad (0), which is the nilradical, is a maximal ideal.
Since the nilradical is contained in every prime ideal (Proposition 12), it follows that M is the unique prime ideal, so also the unique maximal ideal.
... ... etc (see attachment)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I have two problems with the proof above.
(1) I do not completely follow the statement:
"We are reduced to the situation where Q = (0) and M = rad Q = rad (0), which is the nilradical, is a maximal ideal."
I know this is something to do with zero divisors in R/Q, but why/how do we end up discussing Q = (0) exactly? Can someone please clarify? ( I suspect it is simple but I cannot see the connection :-( )
(2) I am puzzled by the statement "it follows that M is the unique prime ideal, so also the unique maximal ideal"
This statement appears to indicate that in R we have that prime ideals are maximal ideals.
I thought that we could only assume that maximal ideals were prime ideals (D&F Corollary 14 page 256) but not the converse? Can someone please clarify.
Would appreciate some help.
Peter
[Note: D&F Corollary 14, page 256 reads as follows:
Corollary 14. Assume R is commutative. Every maximal ideal is a prime ideal.]
My problem is with Proposition 19 part 4 - but note that part 4 relies on part 2 - see attachment.
The relevant sections of Proposition 19 read as follows: (see attachment)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Proposition 19.
Let R be a commutative ring with 1
... ...
(2) The ideal Q is primary if and only if every zero divisor in R/Q is nilpotent.
... ...
(4) If Q is an ideal whose radical is a maximal ideal. then Q is a primary ideal
... ... etc
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The proof of (4) above proceeds as follows:
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Proof. (see attachment)
... ...
To prove (4) we pass to the quotient ring R/Q: by (2) it suffices to show that every zero divisor in this quotient ring is nilpotent.
We are reduced to the situation where Q = (0) and M = rad Q = rad (0), which is the nilradical, is a maximal ideal.
Since the nilradical is contained in every prime ideal (Proposition 12), it follows that M is the unique prime ideal, so also the unique maximal ideal.
... ... etc (see attachment)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I have two problems with the proof above.
(1) I do not completely follow the statement:
"We are reduced to the situation where Q = (0) and M = rad Q = rad (0), which is the nilradical, is a maximal ideal."
I know this is something to do with zero divisors in R/Q, but why/how do we end up discussing Q = (0) exactly? Can someone please clarify? ( I suspect it is simple but I cannot see the connection :-( )
(2) I am puzzled by the statement "it follows that M is the unique prime ideal, so also the unique maximal ideal"
This statement appears to indicate that in R we have that prime ideals are maximal ideals.
I thought that we could only assume that maximal ideals were prime ideals (D&F Corollary 14 page 256) but not the converse? Can someone please clarify.
Would appreciate some help.
Peter
[Note: D&F Corollary 14, page 256 reads as follows:
Corollary 14. Assume R is commutative. Every maximal ideal is a prime ideal.]