Probability Challenge: Jason's 2010 Coin Flips

In summary, Jason has a coin that has a $\dfrac{2}{3}$ probability of landing on the same side as the last flip and a $\dfrac{1}{3}$ probability of landing on the opposite side. After flipping it and getting heads, he flips it 2010 more times. The probability that the last flip is heads can be found using a simple Markov chain problem, with a transition matrix of $\displaystyle A = \left | \begin{matrix} \frac{2}{3} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{2}{3} \end{matrix} \right |\ (1)$ and a solution of $\displaystyle
  • #1
anemone
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
3,883
115
Jason has a coin which will come up the same as the last flip $\dfrac{2}{3}$ of the time and the other side $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of the time. He flips it and it comes up heads. He then flips it 2010 more times. What is the probability that the last flip is heads?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
anemone said:
Jason has a coin which will come up the same as the last flip $\dfrac{2}{3}$ of the time and the other side $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of the time. He flips it and it comes up heads. He then flips it 2010 more times. What is the probability that the last flip is heads?

[sp]It's a simple Markov chain problem and the transition matrix is...

$\displaystyle A = \left | \begin{matrix} \frac{2}{3} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{2}{3} \end{matrix} \right |\ (1) $

The solution is the term of first line and first column of $ A^{n}$ for n=2010. This term is the solution of the difference equation...

$\displaystyle a_{n+1} = \frac{a_{n}}{3} + \frac{1}{3}\ a_{1}= \frac{2}{3}\ (2)$

... which is...

$\displaystyle a_{n} = \frac {1 + 3^{- n}}{2}\ (3)$

The requested value is therefore $P = \frac{1 + 3^{- 2010}}{2}$, very close to $\frac{1}{2}$ of course (Wink)...[/sp]

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #3
chisigma said:
[sp]It's a simple Markov chain problem and the transition matrix is...

$\displaystyle A = \left | \begin{matrix} \frac{2}{3} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{2}{3} \end{matrix} \right |\ (1) $

The solution is the term of first line and first column of $ A^{n}$ for n=2010. This term is the solution of the difference equation...

$\displaystyle a_{n+1} = \frac{a_{n}}{3} + \frac{1}{3}\ a_{1}= \frac{2}{3}\ (2)$

... which is...

$\displaystyle a_{n} = \frac {1 + 3^{- n}}{2}\ (3)$

The requested value is therefore $P = \frac{1 + 3^{- 2010}}{2}$, very close to $\frac{1}{2}$ of course (Wink)...[/sp]

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Well done, chisigma, well done!:cool:
 

FAQ: Probability Challenge: Jason's 2010 Coin Flips

1. What is the probability that Jason will get all heads or all tails in his 2010 coin flips?

The probability of Jason getting all heads or all tails in his 2010 coin flips is 1 out of 2^2010, which is a very small number.

2. How many possible outcomes are there for Jason's 2010 coin flips?

There are a total of 2^2010 possible outcomes for Jason's 2010 coin flips.

3. What is the probability of Jason getting exactly 1000 heads in his 2010 coin flips?

The probability of Jason getting exactly 1000 heads in his 2010 coin flips is 1 out of 2^2010, which is again a very small number.

4. What is the expected number of heads that Jason will get in his 2010 coin flips?

The expected number of heads that Jason will get in his 2010 coin flips is half of the total number of flips, which is 1005.

5. How likely is it that Jason will get more heads than tails in his 2010 coin flips?

The likelihood of Jason getting more heads than tails in his 2010 coin flips is equal to the likelihood of getting more tails than heads, which is 50%. This is because each flip has an equal chance of landing on either heads or tails.

Back
Top