- #1
stunner5000pt
- 1,465
- 4
Consider the infinite square well potentail over the range 0<x<a with energy eigenfunctions [itex]Psi _{n} (x,t)[/itex]
Show that if the quantum state of a particle is descirbed by a single eigenfuncation i.e. the particle has a sharply defined eneryg, then the probability current density inside the well vanishes
ok Delta E = 0
[tex] \Psi (x,t) = \psi(x) \exp(\frac{-iEt}{m} [/tex]
[tex] j= \frac{\hbar}{2im} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) [/tex]
ok let's say that [tex] P(x,t) = | \Psi(x,t)|^2 = \psi^*(x) \psi(x)[/tex]
we also know that \frac{\partial}{\partial t} (\psi^* \psi)= -\frac{\hbar}{2im} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) [/tex]
and hence [tex] \frac{\partial}{\partial t} P(x,t) = \frac{\partial}{\partial t}( \psi^*(x) \psi(x) )= 0 = -\frac{\partial}{\partial t} j(x,t) = 0 [/tex]
so the position derivative of probability current wrt position is zero
but does that show that it vanishes??
thank you for your input
Show that if the quantum state of a particle is descirbed by a single eigenfuncation i.e. the particle has a sharply defined eneryg, then the probability current density inside the well vanishes
ok Delta E = 0
[tex] \Psi (x,t) = \psi(x) \exp(\frac{-iEt}{m} [/tex]
[tex] j= \frac{\hbar}{2im} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) [/tex]
ok let's say that [tex] P(x,t) = | \Psi(x,t)|^2 = \psi^*(x) \psi(x)[/tex]
we also know that \frac{\partial}{\partial t} (\psi^* \psi)= -\frac{\hbar}{2im} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) [/tex]
and hence [tex] \frac{\partial}{\partial t} P(x,t) = \frac{\partial}{\partial t}( \psi^*(x) \psi(x) )= 0 = -\frac{\partial}{\partial t} j(x,t) = 0 [/tex]
so the position derivative of probability current wrt position is zero
but does that show that it vanishes??
thank you for your input