- #1
Dragonfall
- 1,030
- 4
Let [itex]x \in \{-1, 1\}^n[/itex] and let [itex]p(x) = \{w \in \mathbb{R}^n : x \cdot w > 1\}[/itex]. What is the probability that [itex]p(x_1) \cap \ldots \cap p(x_{n+1}) = \emptyset[/itex] given that [itex]x_i[/itex] are chosen uniformly at random?