Probability of White Ball Drawn Twice From Urn I & II

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In summary, the conversation discusses a basic problem involving two urns with different numbers of white and black balls. A fair coin is used to determine which urn a ball will be selected from. Given that a white ball is selected and replaced, the probability of the first ball being from urn I is found using Bayes' Theorem. In part (b), the probability of the second ball also being white is calculated using the product and sum rules. The correct solution is found to be $\frac{5}{12}$ by considering all possible cases.
  • #1
Jameson
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Basic problem:
Urn I has 4 white and 4 black balls. Urn II has 2 white and 6 black balls. Flip a fair coin. If the outcome is heads, then a ball from urn I is selected, whereas if the outcome is tails, then a ball from urn II is selected. Suppose a white ball is selected and the replaced. Denote this event by $W_1$. Now another ball is withdrawn at random from the same urn.

(a) What is the probability that the first ball is from urn I (given that it is white)?

My solution to part (a):
This can be solved by Bayes' Theorem in a pretty straightforward way. Let the notation $W_1$ mean that the first ball is white and let $U_1$ mean that it was chosen from urn I.

\(\displaystyle P \left( U_1|W_1 \right) = \frac{ P \left( W_1 \cap U_1 \right)}{P \left(W_1 \right)} = \frac{P \left( W_1|U_1 \right)P(U_1)}{P \left( W_1|U_1 \right)P(U_1)+P \left( W_1|U_2 \right)P(U_2)}\).

Now plugging in the information I have into the last expression I get:

\(\displaystyle P \left( U_1|W_1 \right)=\frac{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{2}{3}\)

So my question is how does that look?

(b) What is the probability that the second ball is also white?

My solution to part (b):
This one I'm not 100% sure on. I think it should be similar to part (a) except the values of \(\displaystyle P(U_1)\) and \(\displaystyle P(U_2)\) will be different. Instead of $\frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{1}{2}$ they will be $\frac{2}{3}$ and $\frac{1}{3}$ respectively. So the solution should be found using the same method just replacing those values, correct?
 
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  • #2
I think I solved it now. My above idea was wrong.

What I need to find is \(\displaystyle P(W_2|W_1)=\frac{P(W_2 \cap W_1)}{P(W_1)}\). Both the numerator and denominator should be broken up into two cases. Once I do that I get the following:

\(\displaystyle P(W_2|W_1)=\frac{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4} \frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}+ \frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{5}{12}\)
 
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  • #3
Jameson said:
Basic problem:
Urn I has 4 white and 4 black balls. Urn II has 2 white and 6 black balls. Flip a fair coin. If the outcome is heads, then a ball from urn I is selected, whereas if the outcome is tails, then a ball from urn II is selected. Suppose a white ball is selected and the replaced. Denote this event by $W_1$. Now another ball is withdrawn at random from the same urn.
My solution to part (a):
This can be solved by Bayes' Theorem in a pretty straightforward way. Let the notation $W_1$ mean that the first ball is white and let $U_1$ mean that it was chosen from urn I.

\(\displaystyle P \left( U_1|W_1 \right) = \frac{ P \left( W_1 \cap U_1 \right)}{P \left(W_1 \right)} = \frac{P \left( W_1|U_1 \right)P(U_1)}{P \left( W_1|U_1 \right)P(U_1)+P \left( W_1|U_2 \right)P(U_2)}\).

Now plugging in the information I have into the last expression I get:

\(\displaystyle P \left( U_1|W_1 \right)=\frac{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{2}{3}\)

So my question is how does that look?

Looks fine!

Since the probability on urn I and urn II is equally likely, so any ball is equally likely, you can shorten it to:
$$P(U_1|W_1) = \frac{P(U_1 \wedge W_1)}{P(W_1)} = \frac{\frac 4 {16}}{\frac 6 {16}} = \frac 2 3$$
My solution to part (b):
This one I'm not 100% sure on. I think it should be similar to part (a) except the values of \(\displaystyle P(U_1)\) and \(\displaystyle P(U_2)\) will be different. Instead of $\frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{1}{2}$ they will be $\frac{2}{3}$ and $\frac{1}{3}$ respectively. So the solution should be found using the same method just replacing those values, correct?

Jameson said:
I think I solved it now. My above idea was wrong.

What I need to find is \(\displaystyle P(W_2|W_1)=\frac{P(W_2 \cap W_1)}{P(W_1)}\). Both the numerator and denominator should be broken up into two cases. Once I do that I get the following:

\(\displaystyle P(W_2|W_1)=\frac{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4} \frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}+ \frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{5}{12}\)

Working it out mathematically:

$$\begin{aligned}
P(W_2|W_1)&=\frac {P(W_1 \wedge W_2)}{P(W_1)} \\
&= \frac {P((U_1 \wedge W_1 \wedge W_2) \vee (U_1 \wedge W_1 \wedge W_2))}{P(W_1)} \\
&= \frac {P(U_1 \wedge W_1 \wedge W_2) + P(U_1 \wedge W_1 \wedge W_2)}{P(W_1)} && \text{disjoint sum rule}\\
&= \frac {P(W_2|U_1 \wedge W_1)P(U_1 \wedge W_1) + P(W_2|U_2 \wedge W_1)P(U_2 \wedge W_1)}{P(W_1)} && \text{product rule} \\
&= \frac {\frac 4 8 \cdot \frac 4 {16} + \frac 2 8 \cdot \frac 2 {16}}{\frac 6 {16}} && \text{rule for equally likely outcomes}\\
&= \frac 5 {12} \\
\end{aligned}$$
 
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  • #4
Thank you for your reply I like Serena! :)

I am leaving now for a study session so will have to reply later but I feel like my method is correct. Also, I think you might be interpreting the problem as without replacement but it's with replacement. Again, my apologies that I can't answer in more detail now but trust me I will later tonight and really appreciate the help!

I broke down the numerator as follows: \(\displaystyle P(W_1 W_2)=P(W_1 W_2|U_1)P(U_1)+P(W_1 W_2|U_2)P(U_2)\) and the numbers I wrote follow. Do you see any flaw in this reasoning?
 
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  • #5
Jameson said:
Thank you for your reply I like Serena! :)

I am leaving now for a study session so will have to reply later but I feel like my method is correct. Also, I think you might be interpreting the problem as without replacement but it's with replacement. Again, my apologies that I can't answer in more detail now but trust me I will later tonight and really appreciate the help!

I broke down the numerator as follows: \(\displaystyle P(W_1 W_2)=P(W_1 W_2|U_2)P(U_2)+P(W_1 W_2|U_2)P(U_2)\) and the numbers I wrote follow. Do you see any flaw in this reasoning?

Yes. Sorry. I had just realized my mistake and corrected it.
And your reasoning is flawless (although you made a typo with $U_1$ and $U_2$ ;)).

\(\displaystyle P(W_1 W_2)=P(W_1 W_2|U_1)P(U_1)+P(W_1 W_2|U_2)P(U_2)\)
 
  • #6
Typo fixed and we now get the same answer, $\frac{5}{12}$, so I am marking the thread solved. :)

I feel confident about my midterm tomorrow. :D
 

FAQ: Probability of White Ball Drawn Twice From Urn I & II

1. What is the probability of drawing a white ball twice from Urn I?

The probability of drawing a white ball twice from Urn I depends on the number of white balls and the total number of balls in the urn. It can be calculated by dividing the number of white balls by the total number of balls in Urn I.

2. Is the probability of drawing a white ball twice from Urn II the same as Urn I?

No, the probability of drawing a white ball twice from Urn II may be different from Urn I. This is because the number of white balls and total number of balls in Urn II may be different from Urn I, resulting in a different probability.

3. How does the probability change if a white ball is drawn and not replaced before the second draw?

If a white ball is drawn and not replaced before the second draw, the probability of drawing a white ball on the second draw decreases. This is because there is one less white ball and one less ball overall in the urn, making the probability of drawing a white ball lower.

4. Can the probability of drawing a white ball twice be greater than 1?

No, the probability of an event cannot exceed 1. This means that the probability of drawing a white ball twice cannot be greater than 1, as it would mean that the event is certain to happen.

5. How can we calculate the overall probability of drawing a white ball twice from both urns?

The overall probability of drawing a white ball twice from both urns can be calculated by multiplying the individual probabilities of drawing a white ball from each urn. This is known as the multiplication rule of probability.

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