- #1
MegaDeth
- 83
- 0
Ok, so there's this proof by induction question. I looked at the answer for it but I don't understand it.
How does it get from being 2^(k+1) to being 2^(k+2)?
How does it get from being 2^(k+1) to being 2^(k+2)?
Last edited by a moderator: