Proof of ax=a: A Simple Proposition in Spivak's Calculus

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In summary, the conversation discusses a proof of a simple proposition using various properties, where the expert provides a line-by-line interpretation and suggests simplifying the equation by multiplying both sides by a^-1 on the left. The conversation also mentions considering two cases, one for positive numbers and one for negative numbers, to justify the proof. Finally, the expert clarifies the steps and confirms the correctness of the proof.
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I haven't written a lot of proofs so I need the opinion of the experts on my proof of a simple proposition. Here's the various properties I used: (P10) (Trichotomy law) For every number a, one and only one of the following holds: (i) a = 0, (ii) a is in the collection P, (iii) —a is in the collection P.

(P7) For every number a not equal to 0, there is a number a^-1 such that a • a^-1 = a^-1 • a = 1.

(P6) If a is any number, then a • 1 = 1 • a = a.

If ax=a for some number "a" different from 0, then x=1.(Spivak's calculus.)

I consider two cases: a>0 or a<0. By definition (Given in Spivak's calculus) :

a>b if a-b is in the collection P (P being the collection of all positive numbers.)

a>0 because a-o is in collection P by trichotomy law(P10)

So a*x=a

by P7 a*a^-1*x= a*a^-1

1*x=1

by P6 x=1

Second case :

By definition :

a< to b if b>a

a<0 because 0>a Now, we do the same thing as the previous case.

Proposition proven !

Here's Spivak's answer

1=a^-1*a=a^-1*(a*x)=(a^-1*a)*x=1*x=x

Here's my interpretation line by line (just to be sure I am understanding it)

a^-1*a=1
a^-1*(a*x)=1 (Is my interpretation correct in saying that the number "a" can be factorized in a way that makes a=a*x, "x" being a variable which the value is to be determined)
(a^-1*a)*x=1
1*x=1
x=1

So, basically, Spivak is constructing his proof. Is it correct ?

Any opinions ? Thank you!
 
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  • #2
chemistry1 said:
So a*x=a

by P7 a*a^-1*x= a*a^-1
None of your rules would lead to the left-hand side where a^-1 appears in the middle of the previous multiplication.

Second case :
Second case of what?

a^-1*(a*x)=1 (Is my interpretation correct in saying that the number "a" can be factorized in a way that makes a=a*x, "x" being a variable which the value is to be determined)
That does not make sense. This equation is not proven at this step.

1=a^-1*a=a^-1*(a*x)=(a^-1*a)*x=1*x=x
This is right, but it hides the important step: take the initial equation a*x=x and multiply both sides by a^-1 on the left, afterwards simplify.
 
  • #3
-Wait, what do you mean that my rules won't result in a*a^-1*x= a*a^-1 ? Is it only because I've put a^-1 in the middle that it isn't correct ?

-The way I thought about the proof was to justify that it would work wether we were talking about positive numbers or negative numbers, hence the the second case.

-Then did he just put the the variable "x" just like that ?

-You meant a*x=a. Also, "multiply both sides by a^-1 on the left" you meant to multiply both sides and to simplify on only the left side ? Could you rephrase?
 
  • #4
No need to answer, I understand now. THank you!
 

Related to Proof of ax=a: A Simple Proposition in Spivak's Calculus

1. What is the proof of ax=a then x=1?

The proof of ax=a then x=1 is a mathematical concept known as the cancellation property. It states that when both sides of an equation are multiplied by the same number, the resulting equation will still be true. In other words, if ax=a, then dividing both sides by a will result in x=1.

2. How does the cancellation property apply to ax=a then x=1?

The cancellation property applies to ax=a then x=1 because both sides of the equation are being multiplied by the same number, a. This results in the cancellation of the a on both sides, leaving only x=1 on one side of the equation.

3. Is the cancellation property specific to ax=a then x=1?

No, the cancellation property applies to any equation where both sides are being multiplied by the same number. For example, 2x=2 then x=1 also follows the cancellation property.

4. Can the cancellation property be applied to equations with variables other than x?

Yes, the cancellation property can be applied to equations with any variable. As long as both sides of the equation are being multiplied by the same number, the variable will be cancelled out and the resulting equation will still hold true.

5. Why is the cancellation property important in mathematics?

The cancellation property is important in mathematics because it allows us to simplify equations and solve for variables more easily. It also helps us to identify equivalent equations and make connections between different mathematical concepts.

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