- #1
Panphobia
- 435
- 13
Homework Statement
Consider a bijection f = (A,B,F)
Show that f^(-1) (inverse of f) is a bijection from B to A and that for any element x of A we have
f^(-1)(f(x))=x
The Attempt at a Solution
For this proof can I use contradiction and the say f^(-1) is not a bijection from B to A or there exists an element x of A that f^(-1)(f(x)) != x
If this is what I am supposed to prove. How would I go about doing it? If not what proof method should I use?