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I am reading Manfred Stoll's book: Introduction to Real Analysis.
I need help with Stoll's proof of the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVT) for Derivatives (Darboux's Theorem).
Stoll's statement of the IVT for Derivatives and its proof read as follows:
View attachment 3926
View attachment 3927
In the above proof, Stoll argues that because
(i) there exists an \(\displaystyle x_1 \gt a\) such that \(\displaystyle g(x_1) \lt g(a)\)
and
(ii) there exists an \(\displaystyle x_2 \lt \)b such that \(\displaystyle g(x_2) \lt g(b) \)
that as a consequence, g has an absolute minimum at some point \(\displaystyle c \in (a,b)\).
If you draw some sketches, this seems a reasonably intuitive conclusion to draw ... but what is the formal, rigorous argument for this conclusion? What result(s) in analysis is Stoll drawing on and how exactly does the consequence above follow ...Hope someone can help ...Peter
I need help with Stoll's proof of the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVT) for Derivatives (Darboux's Theorem).
Stoll's statement of the IVT for Derivatives and its proof read as follows:
View attachment 3926
View attachment 3927
In the above proof, Stoll argues that because
(i) there exists an \(\displaystyle x_1 \gt a\) such that \(\displaystyle g(x_1) \lt g(a)\)
and
(ii) there exists an \(\displaystyle x_2 \lt \)b such that \(\displaystyle g(x_2) \lt g(b) \)
that as a consequence, g has an absolute minimum at some point \(\displaystyle c \in (a,b)\).
If you draw some sketches, this seems a reasonably intuitive conclusion to draw ... but what is the formal, rigorous argument for this conclusion? What result(s) in analysis is Stoll drawing on and how exactly does the consequence above follow ...Hope someone can help ...Peter