- #1
Cyrus
- 3,238
- 17
I read in my notes that if you have an algebraic equation of the form:
[tex]0=f(\dot{z},z,u,t)[/tex]
And you find an equilibrium solution, [tex]\dot{z}\equiv 0 [/tex]
Then there exists (J) a function: [tex] z= f(u)[/tex]
Is this always true of an algebraic equation?
An algebraic equation being defined as:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/AlgebraicEquation.html
If this is true, could someone show me the proof? (Hopefully its not a big nightmare!)
[tex]0=f(\dot{z},z,u,t)[/tex]
And you find an equilibrium solution, [tex]\dot{z}\equiv 0 [/tex]
Then there exists (J) a function: [tex] z= f(u)[/tex]
Is this always true of an algebraic equation?
An algebraic equation being defined as:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/AlgebraicEquation.html
If this is true, could someone show me the proof? (Hopefully its not a big nightmare!)