- #1
sarrah1
- 66
- 0
Does there exist a proof of the following:
It is well known that Picard successive approximations on the Fredholm-equation
(1) $y(x)=f(x)+{\lambda}_{1}\int_{a}^{b} \,k(x,s)y(s)ds$ written in operator form as $y=f+{\lambda}_{1} Ky$
converges if
(2) $|{\lambda}_{1}|. ||K||<1$ where $K$ is the integral operator.
My conjecture is that if (1) converges under (2), then the Fredholm-Volterra equation
$y(x)=f(x)+{\lambda}_{1}\int_{a}^{b} \,k(x,s)y(s)ds+{\lambda}_{2}\int_{a}^{x} \,l(x,s)y(s)ds$
also converges irrespective of the value of ${\lambda}_{2}$
thanks
sarrah
It is well known that Picard successive approximations on the Fredholm-equation
(1) $y(x)=f(x)+{\lambda}_{1}\int_{a}^{b} \,k(x,s)y(s)ds$ written in operator form as $y=f+{\lambda}_{1} Ky$
converges if
(2) $|{\lambda}_{1}|. ||K||<1$ where $K$ is the integral operator.
My conjecture is that if (1) converges under (2), then the Fredholm-Volterra equation
$y(x)=f(x)+{\lambda}_{1}\int_{a}^{b} \,k(x,s)y(s)ds+{\lambda}_{2}\int_{a}^{x} \,l(x,s)y(s)ds$
also converges irrespective of the value of ${\lambda}_{2}$
thanks
sarrah