- #1
gnome
- 1,041
- 1
The next-to-last step in the proof on pg 1 of this article
http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0006-3444%28194511%2933%3A3%3C222%3AOAMOEF%3E2.0.CO%3B2-Whttp://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0006-3444%28194511%2933%3A3%3C222%3AOAMOEF%3E2.0.CO%3B2-W
makes this substitution
[tex] \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom {m+r-2}{r} q^r = (1-q)^{1-m} [/tex]
I don't see it. How does
[tex] (1-q)^{1-m} = \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom{1-m}{r} (-q)^r[/tex]
or
[tex] (1-q)^{1-m} = \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom{1-m}{r} (-q)^{1-m-r}[/tex]
transform to the expression given by Haldane?
http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0006-3444%28194511%2933%3A3%3C222%3AOAMOEF%3E2.0.CO%3B2-Whttp://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0006-3444%28194511%2933%3A3%3C222%3AOAMOEF%3E2.0.CO%3B2-W
makes this substitution
[tex] \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom {m+r-2}{r} q^r = (1-q)^{1-m} [/tex]
I don't see it. How does
[tex] (1-q)^{1-m} = \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom{1-m}{r} (-q)^r[/tex]
or
[tex] (1-q)^{1-m} = \sum_{r=0}^\infty \binom{1-m}{r} (-q)^{1-m-r}[/tex]
transform to the expression given by Haldane?
Last edited by a moderator: