- #1
cocoabeens
- 6
- 0
If I have finite sets X,Y, and need to prove that X ⊆ Y <=> P(X) ⊆ P(Y), where P() denotes the power set of a set.
I started out saying that for infinite sets X,Y, x⊆X, and y⊆Y.
Given that X⊆Y, we want to show that P(B)⊆P(Y).
x⊆X, so through transitivity, x⊆Y (is this correct?). From here, I wasn't quite sure how to complete the rest.
And then I need to show the statement is true the other way, so
given P(X)⊆P(Y), show that X⊆Y.
X⊆P(X), and Y⊆P(Y), by definition of power set, so for some x⊆X, and y⊆Y, x⊆P(X), and y⊆P(Y). Am I on the right track here, or did I mess up some rules?
I started out saying that for infinite sets X,Y, x⊆X, and y⊆Y.
Given that X⊆Y, we want to show that P(B)⊆P(Y).
x⊆X, so through transitivity, x⊆Y (is this correct?). From here, I wasn't quite sure how to complete the rest.
And then I need to show the statement is true the other way, so
given P(X)⊆P(Y), show that X⊆Y.
X⊆P(X), and Y⊆P(Y), by definition of power set, so for some x⊆X, and y⊆Y, x⊆P(X), and y⊆P(Y). Am I on the right track here, or did I mess up some rules?