Proof of Sets X,Y: X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y)

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In summary, we need to prove that for finite sets X and Y, X ⊆ Y <=> P(X) ⊆ P(Y), where P() denotes the power set. To do this, we first show that if X ⊆ Y, then P(X) ⊆ P(Y). This is done by considering an arbitrary element A in P(X) and showing that A ⊆ Y. Then, we prove the other direction by assuming P(X) ⊆ P(Y) and showing that for any x in X, {x} ∈ P(Y), which leads to X ⊆ Y. Finiteness is not a factor in this proof.
  • #1
cocoabeens
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If I have finite sets X,Y, and need to prove that X ⊆ Y <=> P(X) ⊆ P(Y), where P() denotes the power set of a set.

I started out saying that for infinite sets X,Y, x⊆X, and y⊆Y.
Given that X⊆Y, we want to show that P(B)⊆P(Y).
x⊆X, so through transitivity, x⊆Y (is this correct?). From here, I wasn't quite sure how to complete the rest.

And then I need to show the statement is true the other way, so
given P(X)⊆P(Y), show that X⊆Y.
X⊆P(X), and Y⊆P(Y), by definition of power set, so for some x⊆X, and y⊆Y, x⊆P(X), and y⊆P(Y). Am I on the right track here, or did I mess up some rules?
 
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  • #2
Suppose we are given that $X \subseteq Y$. This means that if $x \in X$,then $x \in Y$.

Now we need to prove that $P(X) \subseteq P(Y)$. So let $A$ be any element of $P(X)$ so that: $A \subseteq X$.

This means for any $a \in A$, we have $a \in X$. Since $X \subseteq Y$, it follows then that $a \in Y$.

Since this is true for ANY $a \in A$, we conclude that $A \subseteq Y$, that is: $A \in P(Y)$. Since $A$ was arbitrary, this establishes that $P(X) \subseteq P(Y)$.

Note that finiteness did not play a role here.

To go the other way, suppose $P(X) \subseteq P(Y)$ and consider, for any $x \in X$, the element $\{x\} \in P(X)$.
 
  • #3
Okay, it seems I was confusing it up with properties of power sets.

For the second part, I just work backwards, correct?

I show that the element {x}∈P(Y) because of the given condition, and thus x∈Y. Because x∈X, therefore X⊆Y? Did I confuse up some symbols?
 
  • #4
That looks OK to me...in your conclusion, I would write:

"Because $x \in Y$ whenever $x \in X$, we have $X \subseteq Y$" instead of:

"Because $x \in X$, therefore $X \subseteq Y$".
 
  • #5


Your approach is on the right track. Here is a more detailed explanation of the proof:

Proof of X⊆Y => P(X)⊆P(Y):
Assume X⊆Y. We want to show that for any subset B of X, B is also a subset of Y. Let B be an arbitrary subset of X. Since X⊆Y, every element in B is also an element of Y. Therefore, B⊆Y. By definition of the power set, P(B) is the set of all subsets of B. Since B⊆Y, every subset of B is also a subset of Y. Therefore, P(B)⊆P(Y). Since B was chosen arbitrarily, this holds for any subset B of X. Hence, X⊆Y => P(X)⊆P(Y).

Proof of P(X)⊆P(Y) => X⊆Y:
Assume P(X)⊆P(Y). We want to show that for any element x in X, x is also an element of Y. Let x be an arbitrary element of X. Since x is an element of X, {x} is a subset of X. By assumption, P(X)⊆P(Y), so {x} is also a subset of Y. This means that x is an element of Y. Since x was chosen arbitrarily, this holds for any element in X. Hence, X⊆Y.

Therefore, we have proved that X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y).
 

FAQ: Proof of Sets X,Y: X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y)

1. What is the definition of "Proof of Sets X,Y: X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y)"?

The statement "Proof of Sets X,Y: X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y)" means that if a set X is a subset of a set Y, then the power set of X (P(X)) is also a subset of the power set of Y (P(Y)). This is a bi-conditional statement, meaning that both directions must be true for the statement to hold.

2. How is this proof useful in mathematics?

This proof is useful in mathematics as it provides a way to verify whether two sets are equal or not. By showing that X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y), we can conclude that X and Y contain the same elements, but possibly in different combinations. This can also be applied to other mathematical concepts, such as functions and relations.

3. Can you provide an example of this proof in action?

Sure, let's say we have two sets X = {1,2} and Y = {1,2,3}. In this case, X⊆Y is true because all the elements of X (1 and 2) are also contained in Y. Now, let's look at the power sets. P(X) = {{}, {1}, {2}, {1,2}} and P(Y) = {{}, {1}, {2}, {3}, {1,2}, {1,3}, {2,3}, {1,2,3}}. Since all the elements of P(X) are also contained in P(Y), we can conclude that P(X)⊆P(Y). Therefore, X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y) is proven.

4. What is the connection between subsets and power sets?

Subsets and power sets are related because power sets contain all the subsets of a given set. In other words, the power set of a set X (P(X)) is a set of all the possible subsets of X, including the empty set and the set itself. This is why the statement X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y) holds true.

5. Can this proof be applied to infinite sets?

Yes, this proof can be applied to infinite sets as well. As long as the two sets being compared have the same elements, the statement X⊆Y <=> P(X)⊆P(Y) will hold true. For example, if X is the set of all even numbers and Y is the set of all natural numbers, X⊆Y is true and so is P(X)⊆P(Y).

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