- #36
chwala
Gold Member
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- 387
PeroK said:Yes, but you should prove that last inequality using a separate induction. To help you note that:
$$2(k+1)^{k+1} = 2(\frac{k+1}{k+2})^{k+1} (k+2)^{k+1}$$
If you can show that:
$$\forall k: \ \ 2(\frac{k+1}{k+2})^{k+1} \le 1$$
Then you are done.
the upper part of your post was a bit confusing...it would have been more clear if you had mentioned that we just divide both sides of my inequality in post ##16## by ##(k+2)^{k+1}##, that makes sense to me...