Prove if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz## (Rudin)

In summary, the statement asserts that if \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), then it follows that \( xy > xz \). This can be proven by manipulating the inequalities: since \( y < z \), we can express it as \( y - z < 0 \). Multiplying both sides of this inequality by \( x \) (which is negative) reverses the inequality, leading to \( x(y - z) > 0 \). Expanding this gives \( xy - xz > 0 \), or equivalently, \( xy > xz \). Thus, the claim is verified under the given conditions.
  • #1
zenterix
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Homework Statement
Using field axioms, definition of ordered field, and some properties that ensue, prove the property that if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz##.
Relevant Equations
A field is a set F with two operations (called addition and multiplication) which satisfy so-called "field axioms". These axioms are properties the operations satisfy.
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These axioms lead to certain properties

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The properties above apply to all fields.

We can define a more specific type of field, the ordered field

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And the following properties follow from this definition

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My question is about the proof of (c).

My initial proof was

Using b) with ##z=0## we have that if ##x>0## and ##y<0## then ##xy<0##.

Now assume ##x,y,z\in F## with ##x>0## and ##y<z## for a general ##z## in ##F##.

Then, ##(-y)+z>(-y)+y=0## by property (i) of ordered fields (1.17). Thus ##z-y>0##.

Then, ##x(z-y)<0## and thus

##xz=x(z-y)+xy<0+xy=xy##

where again we used property (i) of ordered fields.

Rudin uses the following proof

By (a), (b) and Proposition 1.16(c),

##-\left [ x(z-y)\right ]=(-x)(z-y)>0##

so that ##x(z-y)<0##, hence ##xz<xy##.

In more steps,

We start with ##-\left [x(z-y)\right ]## and by 1.16c this equals ##(-x)(z-y)##. This is larger than zero because of property (ii) of ordered fields.

But then ##x(z-y)<0## by part (a) and so ##xz=x(z-y)+xy<0+xy=xy##, where again we have used property (i) of ordered field.

Thus, ##xz<xy##.

I find that though these proofs are all simple they aren't completely trivial because I think it is easy to use assumptions that have not been proved yet.

My question is if my initial proof is correct.
 
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  • #2
Your proof looks correct.
 
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  • #3
The way I would do this is simply to see c) as a corollary of b). If ##x < 0## then ##-x > 0## (a), hence ##(-x)y < (-x)z## (b), hence ## -xy < -xz## (1.16c), hence ##xz < xy##. For this last step, it feels like you need another proposition: ##x < y## iff ##-x > -y##
 

FAQ: Prove if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz## (Rudin)

What is the statement we need to prove?

We need to prove that if \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), then \( xy > xz \).

How do we start the proof?

We start by noting that since \( x < 0 \), multiplying both sides of the inequality \( y < z \) by \( x \) will reverse the inequality sign.

Why does multiplying by a negative number reverse the inequality sign?

Multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number reverses the inequality sign because the product of a negative number and a positive number is negative, and the product of a negative number and a negative number is positive. This changes the direction of the inequality.

What is the mathematical step to reverse the inequality?

Given \( y < z \) and \( x < 0 \), we multiply both sides by \( x \) to get \( xy > xz \).

What is the conclusion of the proof?

The conclusion is that under the given conditions \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), the inequality \( xy > xz \) holds true.

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