Prove if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz## (Rudin)

In summary, the statement asserts that if \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), then it follows that \( xy > xz \). This can be proven by manipulating the inequalities: since \( y < z \), we can express it as \( y - z < 0 \). Multiplying both sides of this inequality by \( x \) (which is negative) reverses the inequality, leading to \( x(y - z) > 0 \). Expanding this gives \( xy - xz > 0 \), or equivalently, \( xy > xz \). Thus, the claim is verified under the given conditions.
  • #1
zenterix
708
84
Homework Statement
Using field axioms, definition of ordered field, and some properties that ensue, prove the property that if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz##.
Relevant Equations
A field is a set F with two operations (called addition and multiplication) which satisfy so-called "field axioms". These axioms are properties the operations satisfy.
1700211943304.png

1700211957058.png


These axioms lead to certain properties

1700211986081.png

1700211999646.png

1700212030541.png


The properties above apply to all fields.

We can define a more specific type of field, the ordered field

1700212106625.png


And the following properties follow from this definition

1700212129766.png


My question is about the proof of (c).

My initial proof was

Using b) with ##z=0## we have that if ##x>0## and ##y<0## then ##xy<0##.

Now assume ##x,y,z\in F## with ##x>0## and ##y<z## for a general ##z## in ##F##.

Then, ##(-y)+z>(-y)+y=0## by property (i) of ordered fields (1.17). Thus ##z-y>0##.

Then, ##x(z-y)<0## and thus

##xz=x(z-y)+xy<0+xy=xy##

where again we used property (i) of ordered fields.

Rudin uses the following proof

By (a), (b) and Proposition 1.16(c),

##-\left [ x(z-y)\right ]=(-x)(z-y)>0##

so that ##x(z-y)<0##, hence ##xz<xy##.

In more steps,

We start with ##-\left [x(z-y)\right ]## and by 1.16c this equals ##(-x)(z-y)##. This is larger than zero because of property (ii) of ordered fields.

But then ##x(z-y)<0## by part (a) and so ##xz=x(z-y)+xy<0+xy=xy##, where again we have used property (i) of ordered field.

Thus, ##xz<xy##.

I find that though these proofs are all simple they aren't completely trivial because I think it is easy to use assumptions that have not been proved yet.

My question is if my initial proof is correct.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Your proof looks correct.
 
  • Like
Likes zenterix
  • #3
The way I would do this is simply to see c) as a corollary of b). If ##x < 0## then ##-x > 0## (a), hence ##(-x)y < (-x)z## (b), hence ## -xy < -xz## (1.16c), hence ##xz < xy##. For this last step, it feels like you need another proposition: ##x < y## iff ##-x > -y##
 

FAQ: Prove if ##x<0## and ##y<z## then ##xy>xz## (Rudin)

What is the statement we need to prove?

We need to prove that if \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), then \( xy > xz \).

How do we start the proof?

We start by noting that since \( x < 0 \), multiplying both sides of the inequality \( y < z \) by \( x \) will reverse the inequality sign.

Why does multiplying by a negative number reverse the inequality sign?

Multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number reverses the inequality sign because the product of a negative number and a positive number is negative, and the product of a negative number and a negative number is positive. This changes the direction of the inequality.

What is the mathematical step to reverse the inequality?

Given \( y < z \) and \( x < 0 \), we multiply both sides by \( x \) to get \( xy > xz \).

What is the conclusion of the proof?

The conclusion is that under the given conditions \( x < 0 \) and \( y < z \), the inequality \( xy > xz \) holds true.

Back
Top