Prove Inequality: A,A', B, B' in [0,1]

In summary, the conversation discusses an inequality involving four real numbers in the range [0,1] and a counter-example to prove or disprove it. The inequality is inspired by Bell's Theorem and the region A+A'≤1 is considered first, where the inequality is shown to be true. The region A+A'>1 is then considered, where the inequality is also shown to be true. Finally, the inequality is simplified and shown to be true with enough margin to make the derivatives work on both sides.
  • #1
stevendaryl
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Insights Author
8,943
2,949
I'm pretty sure that the following is true, but I don't see an immediate compelling proof, so I'm going to throw it out as a challenge:

Let [itex]A,A', B, B'[/itex] be four real numbers, each in the range [itex][0,1][/itex]. Show that:

[itex]AB + AB' + A'B \leq A' B' + A + B[/itex]

(or show a counter-example, if it's not true)

This inequality was inspired by Bell's Theorem, but that's not relevant to proving or disproving it.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Consider the region ##A+A' \leq 1## first.
For B=0, the inequality simplifies to ##AB' \leq A'B'+A## which is true.
The derivatives with respect to B are ##A+A'## and ##1##, respectively, which means the derivative for the left hand side is smaller or equal. For the chosen region this means the inequality stays true for all B.

Now consider the region ##A+A' > 1##.
For B=1, the inequality simplifies to ##AB'+A' \leq A'B'+1##. As ##B'+A' \leq A'B'+1##, this inequality is satisfied.
The derivatives with respect to B are ##A+A'## and ##1##, respectively, for the chosen region the derivative on the left hand side is larger, but now we are going backwards with B. For the chosen region this means the inequality stays true for all B.For ##A=1-A'##, the inequality can be written as ##AB+AB'+(1-A)B \leq (1-A)B'+A+B## which simplifies to ##2AB' \leq B'+A##, that inequality does not depend on B and it is true with enough margin to make the derivatives work on both sides.
 
  • Like
Likes stevendaryl
  • #3
Thanks! That's a little more elegant than the only way I found to prove it, which was to do an exhaustive case split.
 

FAQ: Prove Inequality: A,A', B, B' in [0,1]

What is the meaning of "Prove Inequality: A,A', B, B' in [0,1]"?

This phrase refers to proving that the values of A and B, as well as their respective derivatives (represented by A' and B'), are within the range of 0 to 1. In other words, we are trying to show that these values are not greater than 1 and not less than 0.

Why is it important to prove this inequality?

Proving this inequality is important because it can help us understand the behavior of the variables A and B. It can also provide insight into the relationship between these variables and how they change over time.

What are some possible applications of this inequality?

This inequality can have many applications in the field of mathematics and science. For example, it could be used to analyze the growth rate of a population or the rate of change of a chemical reaction.

What is the process for proving this inequality?

The process for proving this inequality involves using mathematical principles and techniques, such as calculus and algebra, to manipulate the given variables and show that they satisfy the given conditions. This may involve solving equations, using inequalities, and providing logical reasoning.

Are there any exceptions to this inequality?

In certain cases, there may be exceptions to this inequality. For example, if the values of A and B are not continuous within the range of 0 to 1, the inequality may not hold true. It is important to carefully consider the conditions and assumptions before attempting to prove this inequality.

Back
Top