Prove Inequality for Non-increasing Function g(x): Harald Cramer Ex. 4 pg 256

In summary: There are typically multiple ways to attack these things. The fact that ##g(x)## is supposed to be a density is very relevant and not something you mentioned in the original post. While densities are non-negative, they aren't monotone in general . The "and" in my prior post meant the intersection of the properties was not true in general. Standard methods for bounding the tail of a distribution make use of real-nonegativity, and they get your result without the ##\frac{4}{9}## coefficient. The monotone behavior, which is atypical, allows a slightly sharper estimate at the cost of a lot more symbol manipulation it...
  • #1
Gaussian97
Homework Helper
683
412
Homework Statement
Prove $$k^2\int_k^\infty g(x) dx\leq\frac{4}{9}\int_0^{\infty}x^2g(x) dx$$ for a non-increasing function ##g(x)##.
Relevant Equations
The inequality is very easy to prove if ##g(x)## is constant for ##0<x<k+a## and zero otherwise. So I will use it.
I have to prove that, for a non-increasing function ##g(x)## the following inequality is true:
$$k^2\int_k^\infty g(x) dx\leq\frac{4}{9}\int_0^{\infty}x^2g(x) dx$$
This exercise is from the book Mathematical methods of statistics by Harald Cramer, ex. 4 pg 256
Following the instructions of the book I find the following:

For an arbitrary non-increasing function ##g(x)##, I define $$a:=\frac{1}{g(k)}\int_{k}^{\infty}g(x)dx$$ and also I define the function ##h(x)=g(k)## for ##0<x<k+a## (and 0 otherwise). So now, ##h(x)## is a constant non-decreasing function and the inequality $$k^2\int_k^\infty h(x) dx\leq\frac{4}{9}\int_0^{\infty}x^2h(x) dx$$ is very easy to prove. So with that
$$k^2\int_k^\infty g(x)dx\equiv k^2ag(k)=k^2\int_k^{k+a}g(k) dx=k^2\int_k^{\infty}h(x) dx\leq \frac{4}{9}\int_0^{\infty}x^2h(x) dx$$

But now I'm supposed to prove that
$$\int_0^{\infty}x^2h(x) dx\leq \int_0^{\infty}x^2g(x) dx$$
I have tried to reorganize it and I have write
$$\int_0^{\infty}x^2\left(g(x)-h(x)\right) dx\geq 0 \Longrightarrow$$ $$\int_0^{k}x^2\left(g(x)-g(k)\right) dx+\int_{k+a}^{\infty}x^2g(x) dx\geq \int_k^{k+a}x^2\left(g(k)-g(x)\right) dx$$
Where now all the integrals are positive, but I don't know how to continue.

Thank you.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Is it given that ##g(x)## is also non negative(##g(x)\geq 0##)?
 
  • #3
Well it's not implicitly said, but if the integral ##\int^{\infty}g(x)dx## converges this implies (I think) that $$\lim_{x\to \infty}g(x)=0$$. So, since ##g(x)## it's non-icreasing this implies ##g(x)\geq0##.
BTW I forgot to say that ##k>0##.
 
  • Like
Likes Delta2
  • #4
Gaussian97 said:
but if the integral ##\int^{\infty}g(x)dx## converges this implies (I think) that $$\lim_{x\to \infty}g(x)=0$$.

This is false. Consider ##f(x)= \sin(x^2)##. Maybe under the additional hypothesis that ##g## is non-increasing it can be correct, but you should justify this step.
 
  • #5
Math_QED said:
This is false. Consider ##f(x)= \sin(x^2)##. Maybe under the additional hypothesis that ##g## is non-increasing, it can be correct, but you should justify this step.
Ok, thank you! I wasn't very sure of that property... In any case, since ##g(x)## is non-increasing, if there exist a value ##x_0## for which ##g(x_0)<0##, then $$g(x)\leq g(x_0), \qquad \forall x>x_0$$ so then,
$$\int_{x_0}^{\infty}g(x)dx\leq \int_{x_0}^{\infty}g(x_0)dx=g(x_0)\int_{x_0}^{\infty}dx\rightarrow -\infty$$
So the integral diverges and therefore, ##g(x)## must be also non-negative.

I think now it's correct, but even if it's not, the main purpose to this is to use it then with probability density functions, so let's assume non-negativity as an assumption if you want :D
 
  • Like
Likes Delta2
  • #6
Gaussian97 said:
Homework Statement: Prove $$k^2\int_k^\infty g(x) dx\leq\frac{4}{9}\int_0^{\infty}x^2g(x) dx$$ for a non-increasing function ##g(x)##.
Gaussian97 said:
I think now it's correct, but even if it's not, the main purpose to this is to use it then with probability density functions, so let's assume non-negativity as an assumption if you want :D

The thread seems to be bouncing around, and from my vantage, at least, un-motivated. It simply isn't true that PDFs are real non-negative and non-increasing in general. So there seems to be some kind of special structure in mind that is absent from the thread.

Alternatively, I'll point out that being real non-negative and non-increasing is true about all complementary CDFs, and with some care, we can integrate over these to recover moments.

(edited to insert word complementary)
 
Last edited:
  • #7
Well... The thread is to prove the inequality... It seems to be bouncing around because we are focusing more on my assumption that ##g(x)## is non-negative than in the thread itself 😅 .

Forget what I've said about PDF, I'm not a mathematician and maybe I haven't been told the most general definition, but for my point of view, a PDF must be real and non-negative. But has nothing to do with the thread.
 
  • #8
Gaussian97 said:
Well... The thread is to prove the inequality... It seems to be bouncing around because we are focusing more on my assumption that ##g(x)## is non-negative than in the thread itself 😅 .

Forget what I've said about PDF, I'm not a mathematician and maybe I haven't been told the most general definition, but for my point of view, a PDF must be real and non-negative. But has nothing to do with the thread.
there are a typically multiple ways to attack these things. The fact that ##g(x)## is supposed to be a density is very relevant and not something you mentioned in the original post. While densities are non-negative, they aren't monotone in general . The "and" in my prior post meant the intersection of the properties was not true in general. Standard methods for bounding the tail of a distribution make use of real-nonegativity, and they get your result without the ##\frac{4}{9}## coefficient. The monotone behavior, which is atypical, allows a slightly sharper estimate at the cost of a lot more symbol manipulation it seems.
 
  • Like
Likes Delta2

FAQ: Prove Inequality for Non-increasing Function g(x): Harald Cramer Ex. 4 pg 256

What is the inequality for a non-increasing function?

The inequality for a non-increasing function g(x) is g(x) <= g(y) for all x >= y.

What is Harald Cramer Ex. 4 on page 256?

Harald Cramer Ex. 4 on page 256 is a mathematical exercise or problem presented in the textbook written by Harald Cramer. It likely pertains to inequalities and non-increasing functions.

How do you prove an inequality for a non-increasing function?

To prove an inequality for a non-increasing function g(x), you can use the definition of a non-increasing function and the properties of inequalities to show that g(x) <= g(y) for all x >= y.

Why is proving inequalities for non-increasing functions important?

Proving inequalities for non-increasing functions is important because it helps us understand and analyze the behavior and properties of these types of functions. It also allows us to make conclusions and inferences about the values of the function for different input values.

Can the inequality for a non-increasing function be reversed?

No, the inequality for a non-increasing function cannot be reversed. It can only be reversed if the function is strictly decreasing, meaning g(x) < g(y) for all x > y.

Back
Top