Prove Inequality: Symmetry, Transition & Reflexion

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    Proof
In summary, the two properties of equality, namely, symmetry and transition, do not imply the property of reflexion.
  • #1
solakis1
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How can we prove that the two properties of equality, namely,symmetry and transition do not imply that of reflexion??

needless to say that i do not know ,even how to start
 
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  • #2
Hint: a set of properties {P1, P2, ...} is said to imply a conclusion C if C holds whenever all of {P1, P2, ...} hold. So to show that these properties do not in fact imply C amounts to finding a counterexample, that is, a situation where C holds but not all of P{1, P2, ...} hold. Specifically if you can find examples where {P1, P2, ...} all hold and C holds, and also examples where C holds but not all of {P1, P2, ...} hold, then that logically means that {P1, P2, ...} cannot on their own imply C - that is, the two are logically independent.

In this case {P1, P2, ...} are just symmetry and transition (transitivity?) and C is the property of reflexion (reflexivity?). Can you complete?
 
  • #3
Bacterius said:
Hint: a set of properties {P1, P2, ...} is said to imply a conclusion C if C holds whenever all of {P1, P2, ...} hold. So to show that these properties do not in fact imply C amounts to finding a counterexample, that is, a situation where C holds but not all of P{1, P2, ...} hold. Specifically if you can find examples where {P1, P2, ...} all hold and C holds, and also examples where C holds but not all of {P1, P2, ...} hold, then that logically means that {P1, P2, ...} cannot on their own imply C - that is, the two are logically independent.

In this case {P1, P2, ...} are just symmetry and transition (transitivity?) and C is the property of reflexion (reflexivity?). Can you complete?

the1st thing i liked for was a counterexample.but I could not find one
 
  • #4
solakis said:
How can we prove that the two properties of equality, namely,symmetry and transition do not imply that of reflexion??
Equality is reflexive, so the fact that equality is reflexive is implied by anything: If $B$ is true, then $A\to B$ is also true regardless of $B$.

Bacterius said:
Hint: a set of properties {P1, P2, ...} is said to imply a conclusion C if C holds whenever all of {P1, P2, ...} hold. So to show that these properties do not in fact imply C amounts to finding a counterexample, that is, a situation where C holds but not all of P{1, P2, ...} hold.
A counterexample to $P_1\land\dots\land P_n\to C$ would be a situation where all $P_i$ hold, but $C$ does not.

Bacterius said:
Specifically if you can find examples where {P1, P2, ...} all hold and C holds, and also examples where C holds but not all of {P1, P2, ...} hold, then that logically means that {P1, P2, ...} cannot on their own imply C
The second set of examples would show that $C$ does not imply all of $P_i$, but it wouldn't show whether $P_1\land\dots\land P_n$ implies $C$.
 
  • #5
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Equality is reflexive, so the fact that equality is reflexive is implied by anything: If $B$ is true, then $A\to B$ is also true regardless of $B$.
$.

Sorry I do not get it.You mean that symmetry and transition imply reflexion in equality??
 
  • #6
Evgeny.Makarov said:
A counterexample to $P_1\land\dots\land P_n\to C$ would be a situation where all $P_i$ hold, but $C$ does not.

The second set of examples would show that $C$ does not imply all of $P_i$, but it wouldn't show whether $P_1\land\dots\land P_n$ implies $C$.

Yes, indeed, my mistake, got a bit mixed up there.. shouldn't be posting too late!
 
  • #7
solakis said:
You mean that symmetry and transition imply reflexion in equality?
Briefly, yes. If you want to go deeper, we should start by clarifying terminology, in particular, the meaning of transition and reflexion (post #2 has proper terms for what you likely have in mind).
 
  • #8
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Briefly, yes. If you want to go deeper, we should start by clarifying terminology, in particular, the meaning of transition and reflexion (post #2 has proper terms for what you likely have in mind).
Then the following is provable:
{\(\displaystyle (\forall A \forall B[A=B \Longrightarrow B=A])\wedge (\forall A \forall B \forall C [(A=B \wedge B=C)\Longrightarrow A=C])\)} \(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \forall A[A=A]\)

I don't understand what you mean by clarifying terms... etc etc
 
  • #9
solakis said:
Then the following is provable:
{\(\displaystyle (\forall A \forall B[A=B \Longrightarrow B=A])\wedge (\forall A \forall B \forall C [(A=B \wedge B=C)\Longrightarrow A=C])\)} \(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \forall A[A=A]\)
Yes.

solakis said:
I don't understand what you mean by clarifying terms... etc etc
Clarifying terms means making their meaning clear. The meaning of the terms "transition" and "reflexion", when they are used in the context of relations, is unclear to me. Please reread what others have said about these terms in this thread.
 
  • #10
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Yes.

.

Please show me a syntactical proof
 
  • #11
For this I need the logical calculus (Hilbert style, natural deduction, natural deduction in Fitch style, sequent calculus, etc.) and axioms.

I expect that there is an axiom $\forall x.\,x=x$. It is a part of all so-called theories with equality. Then your formula is obtained by simply adding vacuous assumptions.
 
  • #12
Evgeny.Makarov said:
For this I need the logical calculus (Hilbert style, natural deduction, natural deduction in Fitch style, sequent calculus, etc.) and axioms.

I expect that there is an axiom $\forall x.\,x=x$. It is a part of all so-called theories with equality. Then your formula is obtained by simply adding vacuous assumptions.

In that case you allow me to say that the said formula is not provable
 
  • #13
I don't agree, and you have not provided any reasons for your opinion.
 
  • #14
Evgeny.Makarov said:
I don't agree, and you have not provided any reasons for your opinion.

Well, in the previous formula if we put A=B=C=a we have the following formula:

{(a=a=> a=a)&[ (a=a)&(a=a)=>a]} =>a=a

Is this formula an indentity ? NO
Because if you take a=a to be false then you have : T=>F which is false.

Hence a=a for all a , is not a theorem implied by the other two properties of equality ,thus it may be considered as an axiom
 
  • #15
solakis said:
Hence a=a for all a , is not a theorem implied by the other two properties of equality ,thus it may be considered as an axiom
I agree that it is an axiom, and that's what I said back in post #4 and repeated in post #11. If you are talking about equality, then it comes with axioms ensuring at least that it is an equivalence relation and in particular reflexive. If you are talking about some arbitrary relation, then, indeed, symmetry and transitivity do not imply reflexivity. A counterexample is the relation $\{(2,2),(3,3),(2,3),(3,2)\}$ on the set $\{1,2,3\}$. However, if a relation $R$ on $X$ is left-total in addition to being symmetric and transitive, then it is reflexive. The fact that $R$ is left-total means $\forall x\in X\,\exists y\in Y\;xRy$. In the counterexample above, 1 is not related to any number, so the relation is not left-total.

When I talked about clarifying terminology in post #7, I was hoping that along with correcting your terms for reflexivity and transitivity, you would explain what you mean by equality: the identity (also called the diagonal) relation or some arbitrary relation. However, you have done neither.

solakis said:
Well, in the previous formula if we put A=B=C=a we have the following formula:

{(a=a=> a=a)&[ (a=a)&(a=a)=>a]} =>a=a
The relationship between
\[
(\forall x,y.\;x=y\to y=x)\land (\forall x,y,z.\,x=y\land y=z\to x=z)\to\forall x.\,x=x\quad(*)
\]
and
\[
(a=a\to a=a)\land (a=a\land a=a\to a=a)\to a=a\quad(**)
\]
is not clear to me. If you have a universal formula $\forall x.\,P(x)$ and a term (say, a constant) $a$, then $P(a)$ is called an instance of $\forall x.\,P(x)$ and is implied by it. However, (*) has nested universal quantifiers, so it is not immediately clear whether truth or falsity of (**) implies that of (*).

solakis said:
Is this formula an indentity ? NO
You probably mean a tautology, not an identity.
 
  • #16
solakis said:
Well, in the previous formula if we put A=B=C=a we have the following formula:

{(a=a=> a=a)&[ (a=a)&(a=a)=>a]} =>a=a

Is this formula an indentity ? NO
Because if you take a=a to be false then you have : T=>F which is false.

Hence a=a for all a , is not a theorem implied by the other two properties of equality ,thus it may be considered as an axiom
Yes you are right, i agree.
And surely I meant tautology, not identidy.
 

FAQ: Prove Inequality: Symmetry, Transition & Reflexion

What is the definition of symmetry in relation to proving inequality?

Symmetry in proving inequality refers to the idea that if one side of an inequality is changed, the other side must also be changed in the same way. This maintains equality and ensures that the inequality remains valid.

How do you use transition to prove inequality?

Transition involves manipulating both sides of an inequality in the same way to maintain equality. This could involve adding or subtracting the same value, multiplying or dividing by the same number, or applying the same function to both sides. The key is to ensure that the inequality remains valid throughout the transition.

How does reflexion play a role in proving inequality?

Reflexion, also known as reflection, is a type of transformation that involves flipping a figure or equation over a line of symmetry. In terms of proving inequality, this means that both sides of the inequality must be mirrored over the line of symmetry to maintain equality and validity.

Can you provide an example of using symmetry, transition, and reflexion to prove inequality?

Sure! Let's say we have the inequality 3x+5 < 2x+10. We can use symmetry by subtracting 2x from both sides to get x+5 < 10. Then, we can use transition by subtracting 5 from both sides to get x < 5. Finally, we can use reflexion by reflecting the inequality over the line x=5 to get 5 > x, which is equivalent to x < 5. Thus, we have proved the inequality using symmetry, transition, and reflexion.

Are there any other methods or techniques for proving inequality?

Yes, there are various other methods for proving inequality such as using graphs, substitution, or induction. Each method may be more suitable for different types of inequalities or situations, so it's important to be familiar with multiple techniques for proving inequality.

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