Prove infinitude of primes that satisfy these properties

In summary: I think I can prove it for N^2+1, since that's just a^2+b^2 with a=1, b=N. But I don't see how that helps with N^2+2.In summary, the conversation revolves around finding a proof or conjecture for the infinitude of primes in various cases, specifically N^2+2, N^2-2, N^2+2N+2, and N^2+3N+2. The possibility of applying Fermat's little theorem and divisibility by 3 are discussed, as well as the unproven conjecture by Hardy regarding infinitely many primes of the forms n2+m2 and n2+m2+1.
  • #1
RossH
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0

Homework Statement


Hi. I need to prove (or at least make a conjecture) about the infinitude of primes in these cases.

1) N^2+2

2) N^2-2

3) N^2+2N+2

4) N^2+3N+2

Homework Equations



none?

The Attempt at a Solution



Already solved for number 4. This is always even, therefore there is not an infinite number of primes.

Otherwise, I don't know how I can even make a conjecture for the other ones, much less prove. The N^2+1 conjecture has not been proven yet, so I'm not sure what information I can use to solve this. Any help or hints would be much appreciated
 
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  • #2
Can you apply Fermat's little theorem on some of these questions?
 
  • #3
micromass said:
Can you apply Fermat's little theorem on some of these questions?

I don't think so. FLT requires you to take the answer (mod p), but p (in this case 3 because I am squaring N) is only one possible factor. Am I missing something?
 
  • #4
Well, you need to know when to apply it. If you want to prove that some of your numbers have an infinity of primes, then Fermat's little theorem is useless.

But maybe, you can show that some of your numbers are only prime in a finite number of cases. For example, you could show that 3 always divides the number in question. This could be done by Fermat...
 
  • #5
micromass said:
Well, you need to know when to apply it. If you want to prove that some of your numbers have an infinity of primes, then Fermat's little theorem is useless.

But maybe, you can show that some of your numbers are only prime in a finite number of cases. For example, you could show that 3 always divides the number in question. This could be done by Fermat...

I don't see it. Which one are you referring to?
 
  • #6
RossH said:
I don't see it. Which one are you referring to?

Try applying the divisibility by 3 approach to N^2+2. What are the possible values of N^2 mod 3?
 
  • #7
Dick said:
Try applying the divisibility by 3 approach to N^2+2. What are the possible values of N^2 mod 3?

If N is even then N^2+2 is not prime, so N has to be odd. Based on the pattern it seems like an odd square can only have values of 0 or 1 (mod 3) but I'm not sure about that.

I'll try to prove it:

If m is a perfect square then m mod(3) must be 0 or 1.

If n (mod 3) =0 then n=3k for some k. Then m=9k^2 and m (mod 3) =0
If n (mod 3)=1 then n=3k+1 for some k. Then m= 9k^2+6k+1 and m (mod 3) =1
If n (mod 3)=2 then n=3k+2 for some k and m=9k^2+12k+4 congruent to 4 (mod 3)=1

So I guess my assumption was correct. Clearly the N^2 that are congruent to 1 (mod 3) are not prime in N^2+2, but what about the ones that are divisible by 3? How do I approach these when I add 2? I can think of a few off the top of my head that become prime: 9+2=11, 27+2=29. Thank you!
 
  • #8
RossH said:
If N is even then N^2+2 is not prime, so N has to be odd. Based on the pattern it seems like an odd square can only have values of 0 or 1 (mod 3) but I'm not sure about that.

I'll try to prove it:

If m is a perfect square then m mod(3) must be 0 or 1.

If n (mod 3) =0 then n=3k for some k. Then m=9k^2 and m (mod 3) =0
If n (mod 3)=1 then n=3k+1 for some k. Then m= 9k^2+6k+1 and m (mod 3) =1
If n (mod 3)=2 then n=3k+2 for some k and m=9k^2+12k+4 congruent to 4 (mod 3)=1

So I guess my assumption was correct. Clearly the N^2 that are congruent to 1 (mod 3) are not prime in N^2+2, but what about the ones that are divisible by 3? How do I approach these when I add 2? I can think of a few off the top of my head that become prime: 9+2=11, 27+2=29. Thank you!

Well done. For some strange reason I was thinking N should be prime as well, hence not divisible by 3. Gah! Sorry. Back to the drawing board. Or should we just conjecture there are an infinite number? (3^3)^2+2 isn't prime. But (3^4)^2+2 is prime. So is (3^5)^2+2.
 
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  • #9
Dick said:
Well done. For some strange reason I was thinking N should be prime as well, hence not divisible by 3. Gah! Sorry.

Thank you. No problem. Is there any other way that you might suggest approaching this one or any of the other ones?
 
  • #10
RossH said:
Thank you. No problem. Is there any other way that you might suggest approaching this one or any of the other ones?

Don't know. I do know some arithmetic sequences can be proven to contain an infinite number of primes. That's Dirichlet's theorem. I don't think the proof is at all elementary. I didn't really think all that hard about the other ones yet.
 
  • #11
N2 + 2N + 2 = (N+1)2 + 1 = M2 + 1 with M a natural number

Therefore we should try to say something about:

1. N2 + 2
2. N2 - 2
3. N2 + 1
 
  • #12
atomthick said:
N2 + 2N + 2 = (N+1)2 + 1 = M2 + 1 with M a natural number

Therefore we should try to say something about:

1. N2 + 2
2. N2 - 2
3. N2 + 1

Isn't N^2+1 unprovable?
 
  • #13
There is a conjecture due to Hardy saying there are infinitely many prime numbers of the forms n2+m2 and n2+m2+1. But it's not proved.
 

FAQ: Prove infinitude of primes that satisfy these properties

What does it mean for a prime number to satisfy certain properties?

A prime number is a positive integer that is only divisible by 1 and itself. When we say that a prime number satisfies certain properties, we mean that it has certain characteristics or qualities that make it unique among other numbers.

What are the properties that a prime number needs to satisfy in order to prove infinitude?

In order to prove infinitude of primes, the prime numbers in question must satisfy two main properties: they must be greater than a certain number, and they must have a specific form or pattern.

How can we prove that there are an infinite number of primes satisfying these properties?

There are a few different methods for proving infinitude of primes that satisfy certain properties. One common method is the "Euclid's proof" which involves assuming that there is a finite number of primes satisfying the properties and then arriving at a contradiction. This proves that there must be an infinite number of primes satisfying the properties.

Can you give an example of a prime number that satisfies these properties?

One example of a prime number that satisfies the properties needed to prove infinitude of primes is 41. It is greater than 0 and has the form of 6n+5, where n is an integer. Another example is 7, which is also greater than 0 and has the form of 6n+1.

Why is proving infinitude of primes that satisfy these properties important in mathematics?

Proving infinitude of primes that satisfy certain properties is important in mathematics because it helps us understand the nature of prime numbers and their relationship with other numbers. It also has practical applications in fields such as cryptography, where prime numbers are used for secure data encryption.

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