Prove that 0v = 0 for an arbitaryvector v belong to V

  • Thread starter zeion
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You are still assuming the conclusion! The second line should be (-1)v, not (-1)v= -v. And how does the third line follow from the second? You are still assuming the conclusion! In fact, the third line is just the definition of 0v. You need to show that 0v is the additive identity element of the vector space.
  • #1
zeion
466
1

Homework Statement



Suppose V is a vector space over F.
Prove that 0v(vector) = 0(vector) for an arbitrary vector v belong to V


Homework Equations



Vector additive identity

The Attempt at a Solution



Let v = (v1,...,vn) belong to V, then 0v = 0(v1,...,vn) = (0,...,0).
Now (v1, ... ,v2) + (0,...,0) = (v1,...,vn), therefore (0,..,0) is the zero vector in V.

Is this ok?
 
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  • #2
There are probably many ways to do this. However, you are not close. A vector space does not necessarily have to be represented by euclidean vectors of the form (a,b). A vector space could even be the set of all differentiable functions. Anyway you have to use the full and general definition of a vector space: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_spaceUse these facts:

1+(-1)=0 (1 being the identity)
v+(-v)=0

Also, your last step should be:
(1-1)v=0
0v=0

Good luck!
 
  • #3
Okay so you're saying that my representation of V is not general and only apply to euclidean vectors right?

Prove that 0v = 0(vector)

Given
1+(-1)=0,
then 1+(-1)v=0(vector)
(1-1)v = 0(vector)
0v = 0(vector)
 
  • #4
zeion said:
Okay so you're saying that my representation of V is not general and only apply to euclidean vectors right?

Prove that 0v = 0(vector)

Given
1+(-1)=0,
then 1+(-1)v=0(vector)
(1-1)v = 0(vector)
0v = 0(vector)
And why is that last line true? Again, you are assuming what you want to prove!

What you need is, rather, 0v= (1+ (-1))v= 1v+ (-1)v= what?
 
  • #5
HallsofIvy said:
And why is that last line true? Again, you are assuming what you want to prove!

Oooops! For some reason, I was proving something completely different, completely forgeting the OP.((-1)v=-v, I think) :redface:

The last line is SUPPOSED to be (0+0)v=0v in which the theorem follows immediately.
 
  • #6
zeion said:
Given
1+(-1)=0,
then 1+(-1)v=0(vector)
(1-1)v = 0(vector)
0v = 0(vector)
How does the second line follow from the first?
 

FAQ: Prove that 0v = 0 for an arbitaryvector v belong to V

What does the equation 0v = 0 mean?

The equation 0v = 0 means that the scalar product of any vector v with the zero vector 0 will always result in the zero vector.

Why is it important to prove that 0v = 0 for an arbitrary vector v belong to V?

It is important to prove this property because it is a fundamental property of vector spaces and is used in various mathematical calculations and proofs.

How can you prove that 0v = 0 for any vector v belong to V?

This can be proven using the properties of vector addition and scalar multiplication, as well as the definition of the zero vector. By definition, the zero vector has a magnitude of 0 and any vector multiplied by 0 will result in the zero vector.

Is this property only applicable to a specific type of vector space?

No, this property holds true for all types of vector spaces, including finite and infinite-dimensional spaces.

Can you provide an example to demonstrate this property?

Yes, for example, let v = [2, 5] be a vector in a two-dimensional vector space. Then, 0v = [0, 0] and the scalar product of v with 0v will result in [0, 0], which is the zero vector. This shows that 0v = 0 for any vector v belong to V.

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