Prove that $$\int_0^1 F(x)\cos(2\pi x)\, dx = \pi e^{-2\pi}.$$

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    2015
In summary, the integral in the given equation represents the area under the curve of the function F(x) multiplied by the cosine function. Its value is πe^-2π and has various applications in mathematics and physics. The value of the integral is calculated using the Riemann sum method of integration. The constants π and e are fundamental in mathematics and have important applications in science and engineering. Other methods, such as complex analysis or Fourier series, can also be used to prove this equation, but the integral method is the most commonly used. The cosine function is used in the equation to simplify the integrand and has a period of 2π, making it a convenient choice for the integral from 0 to 1.
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Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $F : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ be given by

$$F(x) = \sum_{n\, =\, -\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{1 + (x + n)^2}.$$

Prove that

$$\int_0^1 F(x)\cos(2\pi x)\, dx = \pi e^{-2\pi}.$$

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No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.
Let $M > 0$. For all real numbers $x$ and integers $n$, $|x| \le M$ and $|n| > 2M$ implies that

$$1 + (x + n)^2 \ge 1 + (|n| - |x|)^2 > 1 + \left(\frac{|n|}{2}\right)^2 = 1 + \frac{n^2}{4}.$$ Hence, on $[-M,M]$, $$0 < \frac{1}{1 + (x + n)^2} \le \frac{1}{1 +\frac{n^2}{4}},\quad |n| > 2M.$$

Since $\displaystyle\sum_{n\in \Bbb Z} \frac{1}{1 + n^2/4}$ converges, by the Weierstrass test, the series

$$\sum_{|n| > 2M} \frac{1}{1 + (x + n)^2}$$

converges uniformly on $[-M,M]$. So the full series

$$\sum_{n\, =\, -\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{1 + (x + n)^2}$$

converges uniformly on $[-M,M]$. Then $F$ is continuous on $[-M,M]$. As $M$ was arbitrary, $F$ is continuous on $\Bbb R$ and

$$\int_0^1 F(x)\cos(2\pi x) \, dx = \sum_{n\, =\, -\infty}^\infty \int_0^1 \frac{\cos(2\pi x)}{1 + (x + n)^2}\, dx = \sum_{n\, =\, -\infty}^\infty \int_n^{n+1} \frac{\cos[2\pi(x - n)]}{1 + x^2}\, dx = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(2\pi x)}{1 + x^2}\, dx.$$

The last integral may be evaluated by method of residues. Indeed, since the function $h(z) = \frac{1}{1 + z^2}$ is holomorphic in $\Bbb H\setminus\{i\}$ (where $\Bbb H$ denotes the upper half plane) such that $h(z) = O(|z|^{-2})$ as $|z| \to \infty$, then

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(2\pi x)}{1 + x^2}\, dx = \Re[2\pi i \cdot \operatorname{Res}_{z = i} e^{2\pi iz}h(z)] = \Re\left[2\pi i \cdot \frac{e^{2\pi i^2}}{2i}\right] = \pi e^{-2\pi}.$$
 

FAQ: Prove that $$\int_0^1 F(x)\cos(2\pi x)\, dx = \pi e^{-2\pi}.$$

What is the significance of the integral in the given equation?

The integral represents the area under the curve of the function F(x) multiplied by the cosine function. In this specific equation, it has a value of πe^-2π, which has several applications in mathematics and physics.

How is the value of the integral calculated?

The value of the integral is calculated by evaluating the function F(x) at each point between 0 and 1, multiplying it by the value of the cosine function at that point, and then adding all those values together. This is known as the Riemann sum method of integration.

What is the significance of the constants π and e in the equation?

The constant π, also known as pi, is a fundamental constant in mathematics that represents the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter. The constant e, also known as Euler's number, is a mathematical constant that is the base of the natural logarithm. Both constants have important applications in various fields of science and engineering.

Can this equation be proven using other methods besides integration?

Yes, this equation can also be proven using other methods, such as using complex analysis or Fourier series. However, the integral method is the most straightforward and commonly used method for proving this particular equation.

How is the cosine function related to the integral in the equation?

The cosine function is used in the equation to multiply the function F(x), which helps to simplify the integrand and make it easier to evaluate. The cosine function has a period of 2π, which is why it is used in the integral from 0 to 1, as it covers one full period of the function F(x).

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