Prove that such a permutation exists.

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In summary, we have a set $N=\{ 1,2,\ldots ,n \}$ and a set $S_n$ of all bijections from $N$ to $N$. Each element in $N$ has a corresponding set $E_i \subseteq N$ of "enemies" and we denote the size of each set as $r_i$. It is given that $r_i \geq 0, \, \forall i \in N$ and $r_1 + \ldots + r_n \leq n-1$. The task is to show that there exists a permutation $\sigma$ in $S_n$ such that $\sigma (i) \notin E_i \, \,
  • #1
caffeinemachine
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Let $N=\{ 1,2,\ldots ,n \}$.
As usual, take $S_n$ as the set of all bijections from $N$ to $N$.
Corresponding to each element $i$ in $N$ we have a set $E_i \subseteq N$ of "enemies" of $i$.
Denote $|E_i|=r_i$.
Its also given that:
1) $r_i \geq 0, \, \forall i \in N$
2) $r_1 + \ldots + r_n \leq n-1$
Show that there is $\sigma \in S_n$ such that $\sigma (i) \notin E_i \, \, \forall i \in N$.

I am pretty sure that such a sigma really exists.
I can solve it in a special case which I do in the next post. Please help.

EDIT: I hope that we find an algebraic proof of this. (Nod)
 
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  • #2
caffeinemachine said:
I can solve it in a special case which I do in the next post. Please help.

Consider the special case where we have an additional constraint which reads:
$r_i \leq 1 \, \, \forall i \in N$

Let $k$ be the number of elements in $N$ which have exactly $1$ enemies. (In our present situation this is equal to the number of elements in $N$ having more than 0 enemies.) Thus $k \leq n-1$.

Assume on the contrary that no such $\sigma$ exists.

So each $\sigma \in S_n$ sends at least one entry in $N$ to its enemy.

Since there are $n!$ elements in $S_n$, By PHP, there is at least one element $i_0 \in N$ which is mapped to its enemy by at least $n!/k$ elements in $S_n$.

BUt its easy to see that there are at least $(n-1)(n-1)!$ elements in $S_n$ which don't send $i_0$ to its enemy.

So there are at most $n!-(n-1)(n-1)!=(n-1)!$ elements in $S_n$ which send $i_0$ to its enemy.

Since $(n-1)! < n!/k$ as $k \leq n-1$ we have a contradiction and the result in the first post holds for this case.
 
  • #3
caffeinemachine said:
Let $N=\{ 1,2,\ldots ,n \}$.
As usual, take $S_n$ as the set of all bijections from $N$ to $N$.
Corresponding to each element $i$ in $N$ we have a set $E_i \subseteq N$ of "enemies" of $i$.
Denote $|E_i|=r_i$.
Its also given that:
1) $r_i \geq 0, \, \forall i \in N$
2) $r_1 + \ldots + r_n \leq n-1$
Show that there is $\sigma \in S_n$ such that $\sigma (i) \notin E_i \, \, \forall i \in N$.

I am pretty sure that such a sigma really exists.
I can solve it in a special case which I do in the next post. Please help.

EDIT: I hope that we find an algebraic proof of this. (Nod)
I think you can do this by induction, though I struggled to get the details right. The inductive step goes like this. Suppose that the result has been proved for sets containing $n-1$ elements. Given $N$ as in the statement of the problem, the result is trivially true if $r_i=0$ for all $i$. So choose $p\in N$ such that $r_p>0$. Choose $q\in N$ such that $q\notin E_p,$ and choose $\tau \in S_n$ with $\tau(p)=q.$ Now define a new collection of "enemies" $F_i$ on the set $N\setminus\{p\}$ by $j\in F_i\;\Leftrightarrow\; \tau(j) \in E_i.$ Check that $\sum_{i\in N\setminus\{p\}}|F_i| \leqslant n-2$. By the inductive hypothesis there exists a permutation $\rho$ of $N\setminus\{p\}$ such that $\rho(i)\notin F(i)$ for each $i$.

Now define $\sigma:N\to N$ by $\sigma(p) = q$, $\sigma(i) = \tau\rho(i)\ (i\in N\setminus\{p\})$. Then $\sigma (i) \notin E_i \ \forall i \in N$, as required.

I have been a bit sloppy by assuming the inductive hypothesis for an arbitrary set of a given size, but only proving the result for the particular set $N$ consisting of the integers 1 to $n$. But that is just a question of giving names to the elements of the set, and does not affect the proof in any material way. I also neglected to prove the base case for the inductive proof (which is easy but critically important).
 
  • #4
Opalg said:
I think you can do this by induction, though I struggled to get the details right. The inductive step goes like this. Suppose that the result has been proved for sets containing $n-1$ elements. Given $N$ as in the statement of the problem, the result is trivially true if $r_i=0$ for all $i$. So choose $p\in N$ such that $r_p>0$. Choose $q\in N$ such that $q\notin E_p,$ and choose $\tau \in S_n$ with $\tau(p)=q.$ Now define a new collection of "enemies" $F_i$ on the set $N\setminus\{p\}$ by $j\in F_i\;\Leftrightarrow\; \tau(j) \in E_i.$ Check that $\sum_{i\in N\setminus\{p\}}|F_i| \leqslant n-2$. By the inductive hypothesis there exists a permutation $\rho$ of $N\setminus\{p\}$ such that $\rho(i)\notin F(i)$ for each $i$.

Now define $\sigma:N\to N$ by $\sigma(p) = q$, $\sigma(i) = \tau\rho(i)\ (i\in N\setminus\{p\})$. Then $\sigma (i) \notin E_i \ \forall i \in N$, as required.

I have been a bit sloppy by assuming the inductive hypothesis for an arbitrary set of a given size, but only proving the result for the particular set $N$ consisting of the integers 1 to $n$. But that is just a question of giving names to the elements of the set, and does not affect the proof in any material way. I also neglected to prove the base case for the inductive proof (which is easy but critically important).
That's exactly the kind of solution I was looking for. Thank you.
Here's another solution. One can form a bipartite graph $G$ whose partite sets are $X=N$ and $Y=N$. $x \in X$ and $y \in Y$ have an edge between them if $y \notin E_x$. Then $G$ has at least $n^2-n+1$ edges and has no isolated vertex. Its easy to show that, using Konig-Egervary theorem, that $G$ has a perfect matching. Now its easy to find the required permutation.
 
  • #5


I would approach this problem by first understanding the given conditions and what they imply. From the given information, we know that for each element $i$ in $N$, there exists a set $E_i$ of "enemies" of $i$, and the size of this set is denoted by $r_i$. We also know that the sum of all $r_i$ values is less than or equal to $n-1$. This means that the total number of enemies for all elements in $N$ is less than or equal to $n-1$.

Now, in order to prove that a permutation exists, we need to find a specific bijection in $S_n$ that satisfies the given conditions. To do this, we can use a constructive proof approach.

First, let's consider the special case where all $r_i$ values are equal to 0. In this case, there are no enemies for any element in $N$, and therefore, any bijection in $S_n$ would satisfy the condition that $\sigma(i) \notin E_i \, \, \forall i \in N$.

Now, let's consider the general case where at least one $r_i$ value is greater than 0. In this case, we can start by choosing a bijection $\sigma_0$ in $S_n$ such that $\sigma_0(i) \in E_i \, \, \forall i \in N$. This means that for each element $i$ in $N$, we have mapped it to one of its enemies.

However, since the total number of enemies is less than or equal to $n-1$, there must be at least one element $j \in N$ that is not mapped to any of its enemies. In other words, there exists at least one element $j$ such that $\sigma_0(j) \notin E_j$.

Now, we can construct a new bijection $\sigma_1$ by swapping the positions of $j$ and $\sigma_0(j)$ in $\sigma_0$. This means that $\sigma_1(j) = \sigma_0(\sigma_0(j))$, and $\sigma_1(\sigma_0(j)) = \sigma_0(j)$.

Since $\sigma_0(j) \notin E_j$, this also means that $\sigma_1(j) \notin E_j$
 

FAQ: Prove that such a permutation exists.

How do you prove that a permutation exists?

In order to prove that a permutation exists, you must show that it is possible to rearrange a set of elements in a specific order. This can be done through mathematical calculations and logical reasoning.

What is a permutation?

A permutation is a way of arranging a set of elements in a specific order, where each element is used exactly once. For example, if you have the letters A, B, and C, the permutations would be ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, and CBA.

What are the conditions for a permutation to exist?

In order for a permutation to exist, the number of elements in the set must be equal to the number of positions in which they can be arranged. Additionally, each element must be used exactly once in the arrangement.

Can you give an example of proving a permutation exists?

Sure, let's say we have the set {1, 2, 3, 4}. We want to prove that a permutation exists where the first element is 4, the second element is 3, the third element is 2, and the fourth element is 1. We can do this by showing that each element is used exactly once and the set has 4 elements, which matches the number of positions in the permutation.

What is the significance of proving a permutation exists?

Proving that a permutation exists is important in many areas of mathematics and science. It allows us to understand the structure and relationships between different sets of elements. It also allows us to solve complex problems by breaking them down into smaller, more manageable permutations.

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