Prove that y(x) has finitely many positive zero

In summary, the conversation discussed how to show that a nontrivial solution to the given differential equation has finitely many positive zeros. The Sturm's Comparison Theorem was mentioned as a potential approach, and it was suggested to use a proof by contradiction. The theorem states that if the function q(x) is greater than r(x), then y(x) vanishes at least once between any two successive zeros of z(x). However, this approach needs to be modified as the known solution for the other case, sin(1/x), has infinitely many positive zeros. Therefore, the range of x needs to be split into (0, ε) and [ε, ∞) to obtain a contradiction.
  • #1
drawar
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0

Homework Statement


Given $$y''+e^{-x}y=0. \qquad (*)$$ Let ##y(x)## be any nontrivial solution of ##(*)##, show that y has finitely many positive zeros.
Hint: Consider ##z''+\frac{C}{x^4}z=0## where ##C>0## is sufficiently large, which has a solution ##z(x)=x\sin \frac{\sqrt C}{x}##.

Homework Equations


1. (Sturm's Comparison Theorem)
Let y(x) and z(x) be nontrivial solutions of
$$y'' + q(x)y = 0$$
and
$$z'' + r(x)z = 0, $$
where q(x) and r(x) are positive functions such that q(x) > r(x). Then y(x) vanishes at least once between any two successive zeros of z(x).
2. Moreover, if there exists a constant ##m>0## such that ##q(x) \geq m^2## for all x, then y(x) has infinitely many zeros.

The Attempt at a Solution


My guess is ##C## must be big enough s.t ##\frac{C}{x^4}>e^{-x}##, so we can make use of the theorem. I also think that a proof by contradiction (i.e. suppose y has infinitely many positive zeros) may be useful, but don't know how to proceed further from here.
Could anyone shed some light on it please?
 
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  • #2
Your attempt looks good so far.

"Then y(x) vanishes at least once between any two successive zeros of z(x). "

As you use q(x) > r(x), q(r) will be your C/x^4 and r(x) will be e^(-x).
Therefore, your contradiction starts with "assume ##z'' + r(x)z = 0## has infinitely many zeroes [...]"
And then use the known solution for the other case to get a contradiction.That is a nice theorem.
 
  • #3
mfb said:
Your attempt looks good so far.

"Then y(x) vanishes at least once between any two successive zeros of z(x). "

As you use q(x) > r(x), q(r) will be your C/x^4 and r(x) will be e^(-x).
Therefore, your contradiction starts with "assume ##z'' + r(x)z = 0## has infinitely many zeroes [...]"
And then use the known solution for the other case to get a contradiction.


That is a nice theorem.
Right, but noting that y and z in the problem statement have reversed roles from the y and z in the theorem statement.
Also, it doesn't quite get you there because sin(1/x) has infinitely many positive zeroes. You might need to split the range of x into (0, ε) and [ε, ∞).
 
  • #4
Thank you for the help, but doesn't sin(1/x) have infinitely many zeros in [ε, ∞)?
 
  • #5
drawar said:
Thank you for the help, but doesn't sin(1/x) have infinitely many zeros in [ε, ∞)?
I don't think so. Can you find any in (1/π, ∞)?
 
  • #6
Oh that's enlightening, thank you!
 

FAQ: Prove that y(x) has finitely many positive zero

How can you prove that y(x) has finitely many positive zeros?

There are several methods to prove this. One way is to show that the function is continuous and strictly increasing or decreasing on the interval of interest. Another approach is to use the intermediate value theorem to show that there cannot be an infinite number of zeros within a given interval.

Can a function have both infinitely many negative and positive zeros?

No, a function can only have finitely many zeros in any given interval. This is because a function can either be strictly increasing or strictly decreasing in a given interval, and therefore can only cross the x-axis a finite number of times.

What is the significance of proving that a function has finitely many positive zeros?

Proving that a function has finitely many positive zeros is important because it helps us understand the behavior of the function and make predictions about its values. It also allows us to determine the number of solutions to certain equations involving the function.

Are there any exceptions to the rule that a function has finitely many positive zeros?

Yes, there are some functions that do not follow this rule. For example, the function y(x) = sin(x) has an infinite number of positive zeros. However, these exceptions are not common and can often be identified through further analysis of the function.

Can a polynomial function have infinitely many positive zeros?

No, a polynomial function can only have a finite number of zeros. This is because a polynomial function of degree n can have at most n real zeros, both positive and negative, according to the fundamental theorem of algebra.

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